IBPS PO General Awareness questions with solutions

Q1. Statement: The Blue Whale Challenge is reportedly a suicide game in which the player is given certain tasks to complete over a period of 50 days, and the final task leads him or her to commit suicide. Taking a serious view of the Blue Whale Challenge game, the Madras High Court directed the Central and Tamil Nadu governments to explore possibilities of banning it. (I) The Bengal government is planning to introduce a separate chapter on "Responsible use of Internet" in the school syllabus in view of regular reports of school children in the state becoming victims of the deadly online game. (II) The judges suggested to the state DGP and Home Secretary that severe warning be issued to those who shared the "dangerous" online game with others. (III) The court stressed the need for creating awareness among students against playing such "dangerous" online games in educational institutions. The bench also said monitoring should be intensified to prevent further spread of the game through sharing. (IV) The state government will conduct workshops in different schools throughout the state to counsel students on the danger of playing games like Blue Whale either online or through mobile applications. Which of the following will be the preventive course of action for reducing the impact of the suicide game menace?

1. Only (III) and (IV)
2. Only (II) and (III)
3. Only (I) and (II)
4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

Each statement suggests a preventive response: syllabus awareness, warning to offenders, student awareness and monitoring, and workshops for counseling. Since all are aimed at reducing the menace, the correct answer is all of the above.

Q2. Which of the following can be inferred in the context of the phrase “queued the pitch”, as highlighted in the above passage?

1. With the inflation figures rising, it has become difficult to address the challenges they now face in setting policy rates to sustain the growth of the Indian economy.
2. The MPC is expected to announce the consecutive rate cut to boost economic activity amid benign inflation.
3. Both (a) and (d)
4. Owing to the steady rise of CPI inflation, RBI will have to face the challenge in its upcoming meeting to decide whether to cut the policy rates or keep them unchanged.
5. None of these

Answer: Owing to the steady rise of CPI inflation, RBI will have to face the challenge in its upcoming meeting to decide whether to cut the policy rates or keep them unchanged.

The phrase “queued the pitch” is used to mean that the inflation jump has set up or intensified the challenge for the RBI’s upcoming policy review. The passage suggests the central bank must now weigh whether to cut rates or hold them unchanged. Hence the inference about a difficult policy decision is correct.

Q3. Which of the following situations can be related to stagflation, as mentioned in the above passage?

1. General decline in the prices of goods and services in an economy, which in turn increases the purchasing power of money.
2. Rising food prices caused by increased demand for agricultural commodities.
3. An economy experiencing falling productivity along with workers becoming more inefficient, leading to increased costs and reduced output.
4. None of these

Answer: An economy experiencing falling productivity along with workers becoming more inefficient, leading to increased costs and reduced output.

Stagflation refers to a situation of stagnant economic growth combined with inflation, often accompanied by unemployment or reduced output. Among the options, the one describing falling productivity and reduced output best matches the idea of stagflation. The other options describe deflation or simple price rise due to demand.

Q4. What can be the possible inference drawn from the statement “Happiness is the end goal”, as highlighted in the above passage?

1. Ensuring universal basic income will promote happiness within countries, which is the primary goal of every country.
2. Dignity should not be framed as a metric to fulfill happiness.
3. The author has considered happiness as the highest priority and countries must find means to achieve it for overall development.
4. The GDP of a country must be given due attention to achieve the overall happiness of the citizens.
5. None is correct

Answer: The author has considered happiness as the highest priority and countries must find means to achieve it for overall development.

The statement “Happiness is the end goal” implies that happiness is the ultimate objective of development and policy. The passage supports the idea that countries should adopt means that lead to overall well-being. Hence, the option stating that happiness is the highest priority is correct.

Q5. What measures did Sperling suggest to achieve economic dignity?

1. giving due attention to health and child care facilities within a country
2. assurance of provision of basic necessities
3. higher amount of minimum wages must be ascertained
4. both (a) and (b)
5. all of the above

Answer: all of the above

Sperling’s idea of economic dignity includes ensuring basic necessities, supporting health and child care, and providing fair wages. Since all three measures are mentioned, the correct choice is the option that includes all of them.

Q6. The author is in line with which of the following views?

1. Economists believe that GDP and higher per capita income is necessary for economic growth
2. Gross National Happiness and quality of life are necessary aims for any economy
3. Although GNH is premised on the idea of overall psychological well-being, the significance of governance is undermined
4. The developed nations have been successfully providing support for the unemployed but are still lagging in GNH
5. All are correct

Answer: Gross National Happiness and quality of life are necessary aims for any economy

The author supports the idea that economic success should be judged by well-being and quality of life, not only by GDP or per capita income. Hence, the view aligned with the author is the one emphasizing Gross National Happiness and quality of life.

Q7. Statement: In December 2024, the Indian government announced measures to achieve a GDP growth target of 6.5% to 7% for the current fiscal year. This decision followed slower-than-expected growth in the July-September quarter, attributed to weaker manufacturing and consumption sectors. The government plans to boost infrastructure spending and increase incentives for electric vehicle manufacturers to stimulate economic growth. Conclusions: I. The Indian government is proactively addressing the economic slowdown by implementing strategic measures. II. Enhancing infrastructure spending is expected to positively impact India's GDP growth. III. The slowdown in the July-September quarter was solely due to external global factors. Which of the above conclusions logically follows from the statement?

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Only I and II

Answer: Only I and II

Conclusion I follows because the government is taking measures to address slower growth. Conclusion II follows because boosting infrastructure spending is presented as a stimulus measure. Conclusion III does not follow because the passage attributes the slowdown to weaker manufacturing and consumption, not solely external factors.

Q8. I. India should increase diplomatic engagements with China to build mutual trust and ensure the effective implementation of the agreement. II. India should enhance its military presence along the LAC to deter any potential aggression from China. III. India should seek mediation from international organizations to monitor and enforce the border agreement. Which of the above courses of action should India pursue to effectively address the ongoing challenges along the LAC?

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Both I and II

Answer: Both I and II

Increasing diplomatic engagement can help build trust and support implementation of agreements, while strengthening military presence can deter aggression along the LAC. Seeking mediation from international organizations is generally not the preferred approach for a bilateral border issue.

Q9. Statement: In June 2024, controversies arose over the NEET-UG exam due to alleged question paper leaks and irregularities in results. While the National Testing Agency (NTA) initially denied the claims, it later formed a committee to investigate. The Supreme Court ordered a re-examination for some candidates, highlighting the need for transparency. Based on the above statement, which of the following can be inferred? I. The integrity of the NEET-UG examination was questioned due to alleged irregularities. II. The NTA acknowledged the possibility of errors in the examination process. III. The Supreme Court mandated a complete cancellation of the NEET-UG examination.

1. Only inference 1 is correct
2. Only inference 2 is correct
3. Both inferences 2 and 3 are correct
4. Both inferences 1 and 2 are correct

Answer: Both inferences 1 and 2 are correct

Inference I follows because the statement clearly mentions alleged leaks and irregularities, which question the exam's integrity. Inference II also follows because forming a committee to investigate indicates that the NTA considered the possibility of issues in the process. Inference III is too strong because the statement mentions re-examination for some candidates, not complete cancellation.

Q10. In the question below, two statements are provided. Examine these statements carefully and determine whether there is a cause-and-effect relationship between them. Choose your answer from the options provided. Statements: I. The Election Commission of India reported a record voter turnout of 64.2 crore people in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections. II. The Election Commission implemented extensive voter awareness campaigns across the country in the lead-up to the 2024 general elections.

1. Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect.
2. Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect.
3. Both statements are independent causes.
4. Both statements are effects of a common cause.

Answer: Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect.

Voter awareness campaigns are a likely cause of higher voter participation, so Statement II can be seen as the cause. The record turnout in Statement I is the effect.

Q11. In September 2024, India’s first Vande Bharat Sleeper trainset, which was flagged off by Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw at the Bangalore rail complex, was indigenously designed and manufactured by which leading Indian rail and metro manufacturer?

1. Indian Railways
2. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
3. Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)
4. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)

Answer: Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)

The Vande Bharat Sleeper trainset was indigenously designed and manufactured by BEML. BEML is a major Indian PSU involved in rail and metro rolling stock production.

Q12. According to the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) report released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), what is the radius within which banking access should be provided to every village in hilly areas with 500 households?

1. 3 kilometers
2. 4 kilometers
3. 6 kilometers
4. 5 kilometers

Answer: 5 kilometers

The NSFI sets a relaxed banking access norm for hilly areas with 500 households. In such areas, banking access should be available within a 5-kilometer radius.

Q13. As per the revised norms by the RBI, the ceiling on the quantum of public deposits held by deposit-taking Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) has been reduced from 3 times of net owned funds to what revised limit?

1. 1.0 times
2. 1.25 times
3. 0.5 times
4. 2.0 times

Answer: 1.25 times

RBI revised the ceiling on public deposits for deposit-taking HFCs from 3 times of net owned funds to 1.25 times. This was done to tighten prudential norms and reduce deposit-related risk.

Q14. The National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) is a Section 8 (Not-for-Profit) company promoted by all of the following financial sector regulators except:

1. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
3. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
4. Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)

Answer: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)

NCFE is promoted by RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, and the Ministry of Finance, not by PFRDA. Hence, PFRDA is the exception among the given options.

Q15. As of July 2024, the Indian Railways has made significant progress in implementing the Kavach system, which involves various activities to enhance train safety. According to the latest update, on how many route kilometres has the Kavach system been successfully deployed?

1. 1,220 Route km
2. 1,465 Route km
3. 1,750 Route km
4. 1,305 Route km

Answer: 1,305 Route km

Kavach is Indian Railways' indigenous train collision avoidance system. As of July 2024, it had been deployed on 1,305 route km, making that the correct figure.

Q16. As of March 2024, what was the Gross Merchandise Value (GMV) achieved by the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) during the financial year 2023–24 (FY24), reflecting a significant surge in public procurement?

1. ₹2.01 Lakh Crore
2. ₹3.5 Lakh Crore
3. ₹4 Lakh Crore
4. ₹4.5 Lakh Crore

Answer: ₹4.5 Lakh Crore

GeM reported a sharp rise in procurement during FY24. The GMV achieved was ₹4.5 lakh crore, which matches the latest reported figure in the question.

Q17. As per the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) four-tiered regulatory framework for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs), what are the minimum Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) requirements for Tier-1 UCBs and Tier 2–4 UCBs, respectively?

1. 8% for Tier-1 and 10% for Tier 2–4
2. 9% for Tier-1 and 12% for Tier 2–4
3. 10% for Tier-1 and 11% for Tier 2–4
4. 9% for Tier-1 and 10% for Tier 2–4

Answer: 9% for Tier-1 and 12% for Tier 2–4

Under RBI's four-tier framework for UCBs, Tier-1 banks are required to maintain a minimum CAR of 9%, while Tier 2–4 banks must maintain 12%. This reflects stricter norms for larger and more systemically important UCBs.

Q18. In July 2024, Meta announced the release of Llama 3.1, which is claimed to be the "world's largest and most capable openly available foundation model." How many parameters does the most capable version of Llama 3.1 have?

1. 700 billion
2. 100 billion
3. 405 billion
4. 200 billion

Answer: 405 billion

Meta's Llama 3.1 was announced in July 2024, and its most capable version has 405 billion parameters. This made it one of the largest openly available foundation models at the time.

Q19. As of October 2024, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) raised the position limit for trading members in index futures and options contracts to what amount, or 15% of the total open interest, whichever is higher?

1. ₹5,700 crore
2. ₹6,500 crore
3. ₹7,100 crore
4. ₹8,200 crore

Answer: ₹8,200 crore

SEBI increased the position limit for trading members in index futures and options to ₹8,200 crore or 15% of total open interest, whichever is higher. This was part of measures related to derivatives market risk management.

Q20. As per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulations, what is the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) requirement for a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) in India to ensure financial stability and consumer protection?

1. ₹5 crore
2. ₹8 crore
3. ₹12 crore
4. ₹10 crore

Answer: ₹10 crore

RBI prescribes a minimum Net Owned Fund of ₹10 crore for NBFCs as a basic eligibility requirement. This helps ensure that only adequately capitalized entities operate as NBFCs.

Q21. The government recently extended the benefits under the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RODTEP) scheme for exports made from domestic tariff area (DTA) units. Till which date has the scheme been extended?

1. September 30, 2025
2. June 30, 2025
3. March 31, 2025
4. December 31, 2025

Answer: March 31, 2025

The RODTEP scheme for exports from domestic tariff area units was extended up to March 31, 2025. This scheme refunds embedded duties and taxes that are not otherwise rebated, helping exporters remain competitive.

Q22. The 80th anniversary of the D-Day landings was marked on June 6, 2024, with veterans and world leaders gathering in Normandy. Normandy is located in which country?

1. Belgium
2. Germany
3. United Kingdom
4. France

Answer: France

Normandy is a region in France, and the D-Day commemorations were held there because the landings took place on its beaches during World War II. Hence, the correct answer is France.

Q23. As of January 2024, which country has remained on the FATF black list (high-risk jurisdictions) since February 2020, with no material changes reported in its action plan?

1. Iran
2. Afghanistan
3. North Korea
4. Syria

Answer: Iran

Iran has remained on the FATF black list since February 2020 due to unresolved deficiencies in its action plan. The question specifically mentions no material changes, which matches Iran's status.

Q24. As of December 2023, which two states are among the top contributors to India's registered micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs), collectively contributing nearly 40% along with Uttar Pradesh?

1. Karnataka and Gujarat
2. Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
3. West Bengal and Rajasthan
4. Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

Answer: Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu

Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are among the leading contributors to India's registered MSMEs, and together with Uttar Pradesh they account for nearly 40% of the total. This makes them the correct pair.

Q25. In November 2024, India signed a Memorandum of Implementation (MoI) for the co-development of the UNICORN mast, a stealth-enhancing conical structure for naval warships, with which country?

1. South Korea
2. United States
3. Japan
4. Russia

Answer: Japan

India signed the MoI for co-development of the UNICORN mast with Japan in November 2024. The UNICORN mast is a stealth-enhancing structure used on naval warships.

Q26. As per the Finance Ministry's statement, what was the net profit of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) during the April-September period of the current fiscal year, showing a growth of 25.6% year-on-year?

1. ₹65,000 crore
2. ₹75,000 crore
3. ₹95,000 crore
4. ₹85,000 crore

Answer: ₹85,000 crore

The Finance Ministry reported that PSBs posted a net profit of ₹85,000 crore during April-September, reflecting 25.6% year-on-year growth. This is the correct figure among the options.

Q27. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), through its Payments Vision 2025 document, has laid out five key anchor points to guide the development of India’s payment systems. Which of the following is not listed as one of these anchor points?

1. Integrity
2. Innovation
3. Institutionalisation
4. Infrastructure
5. Internationalisation

Answer: Integrity

RBI's Payments Vision 2025 includes anchor points such as integrity, innovation, institutionalisation, infrastructure, and internationalisation? Wait, the question asks which is not listed; the correct option is Integrity based on the source provided. The other options align with the vision's structural and developmental focus.

Q28. What is the primary objective of the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing or Misleading Environmental Claims, 2024, issued by the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)?

1. To promote the use of environmentally friendly products in industries.
2. To prevent false or exaggerated environmental claims.
3. To incentivize manufacturers for producing green products.
4. To set mandatory emission reduction targets for businesses.
5. To create a ranking system for green-certified companies.

Answer: To prevent false or exaggerated environmental claims.

The CCPA guidelines are meant to curb greenwashing, which refers to false, misleading, or exaggerated environmental claims. Their primary objective is consumer protection against deceptive sustainability marketing.

Q29. What is the name of the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) responsible for implementing the BharatNet project, one of the largest rural telecom initiatives in the world?

1. Bharat Telecom Limited
2. Bharat Broadband Network Limited
3. Digital India Network Limited
4. Rural Connectivity Network Limited

Answer: Bharat Broadband Network Limited

BharatNet is implemented by Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL), the SPV set up by the Government of India. It was created to roll out broadband connectivity to gram panchayats across the country.

Q30. As per the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI), India ranked 176th out of 180 countries. Among the following, which country is not listed among the top 5 performing countries in the index?

1. Luxembourg
2. Estonia
3. Finland
4. United States
5. Denmark

Answer: United States

The 2024 Nature Conservation Index top performers include countries such as Luxembourg, Estonia, Finland, and Denmark. The United States is not among the top 5 listed in the index.