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IBPS PO General Awareness: Logical Reasoning questions with solutions

29 questions with worked solutions.

Questions

Q1. Should over-the-top (OTT) platforms such as WhatsApp, Signal, and Facebook be required to obtain licences to operate in a country, just like telecom companies, both of which provide services like voice calling, messaging, and video calling? Arguments: I. Yes, this will ensure OTT platforms' compliance with security requirements, lawful interception, and other regulatory obligations. II. Yes, they should pay taxes and levies that telecom companies already do.

  1. Both I and II are strong
  2. Only argument II is strong
  3. Either I or II is strong
  4. Neither I nor II is strong

Answer: Both I and II are strong

Both arguments are relevant and practical. Argument I supports licensing for security and lawful interception, which is a valid regulatory concern. Argument II is also strong because it raises the issue of parity in taxes and levies between similar service providers.

Q2. Statement: The ministry has forecasted floods in city A. Courses of action: I. People should move to city B. II. People should preserve necessities. Which course(s) of action should be followed?

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Either I or II
  4. Neither I nor II

Answer: Only II

A flood forecast calls for preparedness, not an arbitrary shift to another city. Preserving necessities is a sensible precaution, while moving people to city B is not justified by the statement alone.

Q3. In the question given below, a statement is followed by two conclusions. You have to read the statement and decide which of the given conclusions can be drawn from it. Statement: More houses in city X have lifts than the houses in city Y. I. People of city X are too lazy. II. People of city X are richer than the people of city Y.

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. None of these
  4. Either I or II

Answer: None of these

The statement only says that more houses in city X have lifts than in city Y. It does not mention laziness or wealth, so neither conclusion follows logically. Hence, none of the given conclusions can be drawn.

Q4. Statement: The employees of this public organisation have decided to oppose government control and their push towards cooperative actions with other organisations. Argument I: The government has no control over its organisations and their actions. Argument II: A public organisation functions better without cooperative decision-making.

  1. If only argument II is strong
  2. If only argument I is strong
  3. If either argument I or II is strong
  4. If neither argument I nor II is strong

Answer: If neither argument I nor II is strong

Argument I is too absolute because government organisations are generally under some level of government control. Argument II is also weak because it makes an unsupported blanket claim that cooperation is not beneficial. Therefore, neither argument is strong.

Q5. Eight persons S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are working in a company in different designations: CEO, CTO, CMO, CFO, Product Manager, Sales Manager, Operations Manager, and Trainee, in descending order of seniority. W is three persons senior to Y. At least two persons are junior to Y. One designation is between Y and V. Y is senior to V. S is the CFO. Z is just senior to S. T is senior to X but not the senior-most. Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. Z is the Chief Marketing Officer. 2. T is the junior-most designated person. 3. Only two persons are senior to T. 4. V is the senior-most designated person. 5. W is just senior to U. Who among the following works as Product Manager?

  1. V
  2. Y
  3. U
  4. Z

Answer: Y

Using the seniority clues, the positions of W, Y, V, S, Z, T, and X can be fixed uniquely. After placing S as CFO and Z just senior to S, the remaining designation positions lead to Y being the Product Manager.

Q6. Statements: On 1st May 2020, the Central Government decided to declare COVID-19 a notifiable disease under the Epidemics Act, 1987. The government will take legal action if the patient or family members do not isolate and inform the concerned authorities. I. Efforts should be made to effectively implement the act. II. The cases of punishment should be propagated through mass media so that more people become aware of the stern action. Which of the following courses of action logically follows?

  1. If only I follows
  2. None follows except II
  3. If either I or II follows
  4. If both I and II follow

Answer: If both I and II follow

Both actions are relevant to the situation. Effective implementation of the act is necessary, and publicizing punishment through mass media can help ensure compliance and awareness. Hence, both I and II logically follow.

Q7. Based on the color arrangement Green, Yellow, Red, Purple, White, which color is in the first position?

  1. Green
  2. Yellow
  3. Red
  4. Purple

Answer: Green

The arrangement is explicitly given as Green, Yellow, Red, Purple, White. Therefore, the first position is Green.

Q8. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question. In a bank meeting, eight bank employees Q, R, U, P, D, H, L, and C hold different positions: Managing Director (MD), Executive Director (ED), Chief General Manager (CGM), General Manager (GM), Assistant General Manager (AGM), Divisional Manager (DM), Marketing Officer (MO), and Clerk, but not necessarily in the same order. All the positions are in increasing order, where Clerk is junior to all and MD is senior to all. U is just one position senior to R. D is junior to Q. Q is senior to only three persons. L is neither Chief General Manager nor Managing Director. P is senior to Divisional Manager but junior to Managing Director. H is not junior to P. D is not the most junior. C is an Executive Director. What is the position of Q?

  1. Clerk
  2. Managing Director
  3. Executive Director
  4. None of these

Answer: None of these

Q is senior to only three persons, so Q must be in the 5th position from the bottom in the 8-level hierarchy. That corresponds to AGM, not Clerk, MD, or ED. Therefore, the correct answer is 'None of these'.

Q9. Seven friends Priya, Shreya, Julie, Neha, Pallavi, Asha, and Rekha use mobile phones of seven different brands, viz. Samsung, Nokia, Oppo, Vivo, Apple, Realme, and Redmi, but not necessarily in the same order. Also, these seven people are registered on three different networks, namely Airtel, Jio, and Idea. At least two persons are registered on one network. Julie is registered on Airtel. Asha uses either Nokia or Vivo. Pallavi is registered on one of the networks only with the person who uses Nokia. Asha is registered on the same network as the Redmi user. Either Priya or Rekha uses Redmi. Priya and Julie are registered on the same network along with the Oppo user. Shreya is registered on Jio. The Apple user is not registered on Airtel. Priya does not use Samsung. Pallavi uses which brand of phone?

  1. Apple
  2. Redmi
  3. Samsung
  4. Realme

Answer: Apple

The clues force Priya, Julie, and the Oppo user onto the same network, while Shreya is fixed on Jio. Since Pallavi is on a network only with the Nokia user and Asha shares a network with the Redmi user, the brand assignments become constrained. The only consistent brand left for Pallavi is Apple.

Q10. Directions: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. There are eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. They are four couples living in different cities, viz. Hyderabad, Delhi and Pune. Not more than 3 persons and not less than 2 persons are from a particular city. They hold different positions in Punjab National Bank, viz. Clerk, Assistant Manager, Branch Manager, Chief Manager, Assistant General Manager, Deputy General Manager, General Manager and Managing Director. Managing Director is the topmost position and Clerk is the lowest position. P does not live in Delhi and is not the spouse of W. U is working at the highest position in Punjab National Bank, but he is not the husband of V and does not belong to Delhi, and she is in a senior position than W in the bank. S is not the husband of V and both of them do not belong to Delhi. T, who is the husband of the person who is Deputy General Manager, is working in the position which is the sixth topmost position in the bank. W and the person who is Managing Director are from the same city but not from Delhi. Not more than two persons belong to Delhi. Q is the wife of the person who belongs to Hyderabad. The person working in the lowermost position in the bank belongs to Pune. T does not belong to Hyderabad and is not the wife of S, who is senior to V. R is the wife of the person who belongs to Hyderabad and that person is working as Assistant Manager. The senior-most person is married to the junior-most person but living in different cities. One of the persons working as Branch Manager is the husband of V, who does not belong to Hyderabad. P does not belong to the same city as the wife of T. Q is working in the same city as the Deputy General Manager. The person who is Chief Manager is married to S, but that person is neither P nor R. Question: Who is working as the Assistant General Manager?

  1. None of these
  2. S
  3. V
  4. P

Answer: None of these

This is a complex arrangement of people, cities, spouses and bank positions. After satisfying all the constraints, none of the listed persons is found to be the Assistant General Manager, so the correct option is 'None of these'.

Q11. Heavy traffic during festivals. Actions: I. Deploy police. II. Advise vehicle diversion. Which action(s) follow?

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Either I or II
  4. Both I and II

Answer: Both I and II

Heavy traffic during festivals requires both immediate control and traffic management. Deploying police helps regulate movement, and advising vehicle diversion helps reduce congestion, so both actions are appropriate.

Q12. Statement: 200 workers are hired in a newly opened factory. Some of them are caught stealing products from the factory. Course of action: I. The owner of the company should immediately fire those workers who are caught stealing products. II. A warning should be issued to those employees who are caught stealing products. Give answer:

  1. if only I follows.
  2. if only II follows.
  3. if either I or II follows.
  4. if neither I nor II follows.

Answer: if only II follows.

A warning is a reasonable first action for employees caught stealing, especially when the statement does not mention severity or repeated misconduct. Immediate firing may be too extreme without further details, so only II follows.

Q13. Read the following statements and answer the question. (1) Finally, the government has decided to sell off its sick industrial units, which have become a burden to it. (2) Corruption, inefficiency, and red-tapism have led to heavy losses to the government-owned industrial units. Which of the following is true with respect to the above statements?

  1. Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect
  2. Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
  3. Both Statement I and II are independent causes
  4. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes

Answer: Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect

Statement II gives the reasons for the losses in government-owned industrial units. Statement I describes the government's decision taken because of those losses, so II is the cause and I is the effect.

Q14. Statement: Nita had a fight with her parents. She has decided to be on her own. Arguments: I. Yes, she must start to be on her own; it is about time. II. No, because of a fight one should not take decisions immediately.

  1. If only argument I is strong
  2. If only argument II is strong
  3. If either I or II is strong
  4. If neither I nor II is strong

Answer: If only argument II is strong

Argument I is weak because it merely supports the decision without a strong logical basis. Argument II is strong because it gives a sensible reason not to make an immediate decision in anger. Hence, only argument II is strong.

Q15. Row 1: Auto, Cycle, Rickshaw, Car, Train, Aeroplane Row 2: Boat, Scooter, Motor, Truck, Helicopter, Cycle Which is common in both rows?

  1. Auto
  2. Boat
  3. Scooter
  4. Cycle

Answer: Cycle

The word 'Cycle' appears in both Row 1 and Row 2. No other option is common to both rows, so the correct answer is Cycle.

Q16. A, B, C and D form a rectangular field. A is north of B. C is 0.2 km east of A. The long side is 2 km. E, F, G and H form another rectangle. E is 1.6 km west of G. H is 1.2 km south of G and east of F. The rectangle EFGH intersects the AB-CD line at KL and IJ. K is 0.9 km east of E. J is 0.4 km north of D. What is the minimum possible distance to reach L from C?

  1. LJDBAC
  2. LIHGIC
  3. LKAC
  4. LFEKAC

Answer: LKAC

The geometric conditions determine the positions of the rectangle corners and intersection points. After placing K, J, and the related points consistently, the shortest valid route from C to L is through K and A, matching LKAC. Hence, LKAC is correct.

Q17. Statement: That bail is the norm in jail, the exception is a principle that is limited in its application to the affluent, the powerful and the influential. Assumptions: I. Bail is an expensive proposition in India. II. The poor languish in jails despite being innocent as they do not have the necessary monetary backup. Which of the following assumptions is implicit?

  1. Only assumption I is implicit.
  2. Only assumption II is implicit.
  3. Either assumption I or II is implicit.
  4. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

Answer: Only assumption II is implicit.

The statement clearly implies that the poor are unable to secure bail easily because they lack monetary support, which matches assumption II. It does not directly state that bail is expensive in general, so assumption I is not necessarily implicit.

Q18. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question. Six persons P, Q, R, A, B, and C are living in a three-storey building such that the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and the top floor is numbered 3. Each floor has two flats, X and Y. Flat X of floor 2 is immediately above flat X of floor 1 and immediately below flat X of floor 3. Similarly, flat Y of floor 2 is immediately above flat Y of floor 1 and immediately below flat Y of floor 3. Flat X is to the west of flat Y. They are all from different countries. P lives on an odd-numbered floor in flat X. The one from Finland lives immediately above C in the same flat. A lives to the west of C. P and the one from Finland do not live on the same floor. Neither A nor Q is from Brazil. C is either from Mexico or from Nepal. There is one floor between Q and the one from Serbia, who lives above Q. B does not live in flat Y. The one from Canada lives on the same floor as the one from Nepal. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

  1. B
  2. R
  3. P
  4. A

Answer: B

This is a floor-and-flat arrangement puzzle. After applying the constraints, one person becomes uniquely placed in a way that differs from the others in the group, making B the odd one out among the given options.

Q19. Statement: The Indian High Commission in Antigua and Barbuda had asked the authorities there to stop billionaire diamond trader Mehul Choksi from travelling around the world, sources said on Monday. Courses of Action: I. All billionaire diamond traders should immediately stop travelling to Antigua and Barbuda for the time being. II. Mehul Choksi should seek asylum in some other country to avoid being caught. III. The Indian High Commissioner should himself go and arrest Mehul Choksi.

  1. If only course of action I follows
  2. If only course of action II follows
  3. If none of them follow
  4. If both II and III follow

Answer: If none of them follow

Course I is too broad and unrelated to the specific issue of Mehul Choksi. Course II is not a logical or justified action from the statement, and Course III is impossible because a High Commissioner cannot arrest someone himself. Hence, none of the given courses of action follows.

Q20. Statement: In order to bring about major growth in commercial transactions with India and encourage bilateral trade relations, France has announced a bilateral treaty related to multipurpose projects. Conclusions: I. India is also willing to strengthen its dealings and trade with France. II. Every country should develop commercial relations with others.

  1. Only Conclusion I follows.
  2. Only Conclusion II follows.
  3. Both the Conclusions I and II follow.
  4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

Answer: Only Conclusion I follows.

The statement indicates France's intention to strengthen trade with India, which reasonably supports the idea that India is also willing to strengthen dealings with France. Conclusion II is a general statement not implied by the passage. Therefore, only Conclusion I follows.

Q21. Statement: The annual requirement of blood in our country is 6 million units, whereas the generation is only 3.5 million units per annum at present. Courses of action: I. Blood donors should be attracted by telling them how donating blood would improve their health. II. Blood donors should be attracted by providing them monetary incentives. III. More and more private blood banks should be encouraged. Which of the following follows?

  1. Either I or II follows
  2. I and II follow
  3. II and III follow
  4. All follow

Answer: All follow

The statement shows a shortage of blood supply, so measures that increase donation or collection are relevant. Attracting donors, offering incentives, and encouraging more blood banks are all possible actions to address the shortage.

Q22. A college is planning to organize weekly talks by industry experts and conduct regular quizzes for students. Should the college implement this initiative? Arguments: I. Exposure to industry insights will bridge the gap between theoretical learning and practical applications, enhancing students' employability. II. Allocating funds for expert sessions might reduce financial resources for essential academic infrastructure improvements. III. Regular quizzes will reinforce conceptual understanding, improve retention, and encourage active participation. IV. An increase in extracurricular activities may lead to cognitive overload, reducing students' focus on core coursework.

  1. Only III is strong
  2. Only I is strong
  3. I, II, and IV are strong
  4. I and III are strong

Answer: I and III are strong

Arguments I and III are strong because both directly support the initiative with clear educational benefits: industry exposure improves employability, and quizzes improve understanding and retention. Arguments II and IV are weaker because they are speculative and do not decisively outweigh the benefits.

Q23. Statement: The General Administration Department has issued a circular to all employees informing them that henceforth they can avail their lunch break at any of the half-hour slots between 1:00 pm and 2:00 pm. Assumptions: I. The employees may welcome the decision and avail lunch break at different time slots. II. There may not be any break in the work of the organization as the employees will have their lunch break at different time slots.

  1. Only Assumption I is implicit
  2. Both Assumption I and II are implicit
  3. Either Assumption I or II is implicit
  4. Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit

Answer: Both Assumption I and II are implicit

The circular is issued with the expectation that employees can take lunch at different slots, so it assumes the arrangement will be acceptable to them. It also assumes that staggered breaks will help avoid disruption in office work.

Q24. Passage: University X allows admissions for both men and women. They are allowed to fill out the detailed application form. A recent report given by some agencies has revealed that the admission process at University X is gender biased. I. The technical course offers more seats for men than women. II. The technical skills required vary from course to course in the university. III. Last year more seats were allotted to women as compared to men. IV. Many courses offered in the university allow only men to enroll in it. V. There is no female faculty for the ongoing courses at the university. Which of the following statements strengthens the report?

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only III
  4. Only IV

Answer: Only IV

The report claims the admission process is gender biased, so the strongest supporting statement is the one that shows direct gender-based exclusion. Statement IV says many courses allow only men to enroll, which clearly strengthens the report. The other statements do not directly prove bias in admissions.

Q25. Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. Statement: The manager announced that there will be increment based on performance. Punctuality and sincerity will be reviewed. Hard work and dedication will be applauded. Which of the following weakens the statement of the manager?

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only III
  4. Both I and III

Answer: Only III

The manager's statement suggests that performance and conduct will be evaluated objectively. Statement III weakens this because giving relaxation time to some employees who are not punctual shows inconsistency in applying the rule. Statements I and II do not contradict the manager's announcement.

Q26. Directions: The question consists of a statement and three conclusions. Assume everything in the statement to be true and decide which of the given conclusions follow. Statement: We see the usage of AI in every aspect of life, right from purchasing something online to self-driving vehicles. This technology makes our lives easier and enhances customer experiences. As with any technology, we must leverage this to augment human intelligence and enhance our productivity. But artificial intelligence (AI) could be more biased than humans, as the technology may display stronger racial and gender biases than people do. Biases can inadvertently be introduced in the system based on the prompts used to generate results. Conclusions: I. AI is just another technology without any human cognition. II. The system inherently does not have any bias but depends on how it is trained. III. It is crucial that the data sets used for training models are fair and cover all scenarios, avoiding all possible biases. IV. AI is a destructive force.

  1. Only I can conclude
  2. Only II concludes
  3. Only I and II conclude
  4. Only III concludes

Answer: Only I and II conclude

The statement treats AI as a technology and says biases can be introduced based on prompts, which supports the idea that AI itself is not human cognition and that bias depends on how it is trained or used. The statement does not explicitly mention dataset fairness or claim that AI is destructive, so those conclusions do not follow.

Q27. Directions: The question consists of a statement and two conclusions. Choose the appropriate option after reading the statements carefully. Statements: Wind is an inexhaustible source of energy, and an aerogenerator can convert it into electricity. Though not much has been done in this field, the survey shows that there is vast potential for developing wind as an alternative source of energy. Conclusions: I. Wind energy is a comparatively newly emerging field. II. The energy crisis can be dealt with by exploring more in the field of aerogeneration.

  1. Only conclusion I follows
  2. Both I and II follow
  3. Either I or II follows
  4. Neither I nor II follows

Answer: Both I and II follow

The statement says not much has been done in this field and there is vast potential, which supports conclusion I. Since wind energy is presented as an alternative source of energy, exploring it further can help address the energy crisis, so conclusion II also follows.

Q28. Statement: The ease facilitated by single-use plastic caused it to gain instantaneous popularity. However, its inimical effects were never too unpredictable. The elites have always condemned the reckless use of plastic. Inferences: I. Plastic has been seen as a threat because it gained popularity too soon. II. Single-use plastic has always been detrimental; its effects were foreseeable. Which inference follows?

  1. Only II follows
  2. Either I or II follows
  3. Both I and II follow
  4. None of them follows

Answer: Only II follows

Inference II follows because the statement says the effects were not unpredictable, which means they were foreseeable. Inference I does not follow because the passage does not say plastic was seen as a threat due to gaining popularity too soon. It only mentions popularity and harmful effects separately.

Q29. A > E > F > C > B > D. Who is the shortest?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Answer: D

The order \(A > E > F > C > B > D\) means A is tallest and D is shortest. Therefore, D is the shortest.

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