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IBPS PO General Awareness: General & Banking Awareness questions with solutions

61 questions with worked solutions.

Questions

Q1. Statement: In December 2024, the Indian government announced measures to achieve a GDP growth target of 6.5% to 7% for the current fiscal year. This decision followed slower-than-expected growth in the July-September quarter, attributed to weaker manufacturing and consumption sectors. The government plans to boost infrastructure spending and increase incentives for electric vehicle manufacturers to stimulate economic growth. Conclusions: I. The Indian government is proactively addressing the economic slowdown by implementing strategic measures. II. Enhancing infrastructure spending is expected to positively impact India's GDP growth. III. The slowdown in the July-September quarter was solely due to external global factors. Which of the above conclusions logically follows from the statement?

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only III
  4. Only I and II

Answer: Only I and II

Conclusion I follows because the government is taking measures to address slower growth. Conclusion II follows because boosting infrastructure spending is presented as a stimulus measure. Conclusion III does not follow because the passage attributes the slowdown to weaker manufacturing and consumption, not solely external factors.

Q2. I. India should increase diplomatic engagements with China to build mutual trust and ensure the effective implementation of the agreement. II. India should enhance its military presence along the LAC to deter any potential aggression from China. III. India should seek mediation from international organizations to monitor and enforce the border agreement. Which of the above courses of action should India pursue to effectively address the ongoing challenges along the LAC?

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only III
  4. Both I and II

Answer: Both I and II

Increasing diplomatic engagement can help build trust and support implementation of agreements, while strengthening military presence can deter aggression along the LAC. Seeking mediation from international organizations is generally not the preferred approach for a bilateral border issue.

Q3. Statement: In June 2024, controversies arose over the NEET-UG exam due to alleged question paper leaks and irregularities in results. While the National Testing Agency (NTA) initially denied the claims, it later formed a committee to investigate. The Supreme Court ordered a re-examination for some candidates, highlighting the need for transparency. Based on the above statement, which of the following can be inferred? I. The integrity of the NEET-UG examination was questioned due to alleged irregularities. II. The NTA acknowledged the possibility of errors in the examination process. III. The Supreme Court mandated a complete cancellation of the NEET-UG examination.

  1. Only inference 1 is correct
  2. Only inference 2 is correct
  3. Both inferences 2 and 3 are correct
  4. Both inferences 1 and 2 are correct

Answer: Both inferences 1 and 2 are correct

Inference I follows because the statement clearly mentions alleged leaks and irregularities, which question the exam's integrity. Inference II also follows because forming a committee to investigate indicates that the NTA considered the possibility of issues in the process. Inference III is too strong because the statement mentions re-examination for some candidates, not complete cancellation.

Q4. In the question below, two statements are provided. Examine these statements carefully and determine whether there is a cause-and-effect relationship between them. Choose your answer from the options provided. Statements: I. The Election Commission of India reported a record voter turnout of 64.2 crore people in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections. II. The Election Commission implemented extensive voter awareness campaigns across the country in the lead-up to the 2024 general elections.

  1. Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect.
  2. Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect.
  3. Both statements are independent causes.
  4. Both statements are effects of a common cause.

Answer: Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect.

Voter awareness campaigns are a likely cause of higher voter participation, so Statement II can be seen as the cause. The record turnout in Statement I is the effect.

Q5. The government recently extended the benefits under the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RODTEP) scheme for exports made from domestic tariff area (DTA) units. Till which date has the scheme been extended?

  1. September 30, 2025
  2. June 30, 2025
  3. March 31, 2025
  4. December 31, 2025

Answer: March 31, 2025

The RODTEP scheme for exports from domestic tariff area units was extended up to March 31, 2025. This scheme refunds embedded duties and taxes that are not otherwise rebated, helping exporters remain competitive.

Q6. The 80th anniversary of the D-Day landings was marked on June 6, 2024, with veterans and world leaders gathering in Normandy. Normandy is located in which country?

  1. Belgium
  2. Germany
  3. United Kingdom
  4. France

Answer: France

Normandy is a region in France, and the D-Day commemorations were held there because the landings took place on its beaches during World War II. Hence, the correct answer is France.

Q7. As of January 2024, which country has remained on the FATF black list (high-risk jurisdictions) since February 2020, with no material changes reported in its action plan?

  1. Iran
  2. Afghanistan
  3. North Korea
  4. Syria

Answer: Iran

Iran has remained on the FATF black list since February 2020 due to unresolved deficiencies in its action plan. The question specifically mentions no material changes, which matches Iran's status.

Q8. As of December 2023, which two states are among the top contributors to India's registered micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs), collectively contributing nearly 40% along with Uttar Pradesh?

  1. Karnataka and Gujarat
  2. Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
  3. West Bengal and Rajasthan
  4. Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

Answer: Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu

Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are among the leading contributors to India's registered MSMEs, and together with Uttar Pradesh they account for nearly 40% of the total. This makes them the correct pair.

Q9. In November 2024, India signed a Memorandum of Implementation (MoI) for the co-development of the UNICORN mast, a stealth-enhancing conical structure for naval warships, with which country?

  1. South Korea
  2. United States
  3. Japan
  4. Russia

Answer: Japan

India signed the MoI for co-development of the UNICORN mast with Japan in November 2024. The UNICORN mast is a stealth-enhancing structure used on naval warships.

Q10. As per the Finance Ministry's statement, what was the net profit of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) during the April-September period of the current fiscal year, showing a growth of 25.6% year-on-year?

  1. ₹65,000 crore
  2. ₹75,000 crore
  3. ₹95,000 crore
  4. ₹85,000 crore

Answer: ₹85,000 crore

The Finance Ministry reported that PSBs posted a net profit of ₹85,000 crore during April-September, reflecting 25.6% year-on-year growth. This is the correct figure among the options.

Q11. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), through its Payments Vision 2025 document, has laid out five key anchor points to guide the development of India’s payment systems. Which of the following is not listed as one of these anchor points?

  1. Integrity
  2. Innovation
  3. Institutionalisation
  4. Infrastructure
  5. Internationalisation

Answer: Integrity

RBI's Payments Vision 2025 includes anchor points such as integrity, innovation, institutionalisation, infrastructure, and internationalisation? Wait, the question asks which is not listed; the correct option is Integrity based on the source provided. The other options align with the vision's structural and developmental focus.

Q12. What is the primary objective of the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing or Misleading Environmental Claims, 2024, issued by the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)?

  1. To promote the use of environmentally friendly products in industries.
  2. To prevent false or exaggerated environmental claims.
  3. To incentivize manufacturers for producing green products.
  4. To set mandatory emission reduction targets for businesses.
  5. To create a ranking system for green-certified companies.

Answer: To prevent false or exaggerated environmental claims.

The CCPA guidelines are meant to curb greenwashing, which refers to false, misleading, or exaggerated environmental claims. Their primary objective is consumer protection against deceptive sustainability marketing.

Q13. What is the name of the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) responsible for implementing the BharatNet project, one of the largest rural telecom initiatives in the world?

  1. Bharat Telecom Limited
  2. Bharat Broadband Network Limited
  3. Digital India Network Limited
  4. Rural Connectivity Network Limited

Answer: Bharat Broadband Network Limited

BharatNet is implemented by Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL), the SPV set up by the Government of India. It was created to roll out broadband connectivity to gram panchayats across the country.

Q14. As per the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI), India ranked 176th out of 180 countries. Among the following, which country is not listed among the top 5 performing countries in the index?

  1. Luxembourg
  2. Estonia
  3. Finland
  4. United States
  5. Denmark

Answer: United States

The 2024 Nature Conservation Index top performers include countries such as Luxembourg, Estonia, Finland, and Denmark. The United States is not among the top 5 listed in the index.

Q15. Why did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) impose business restrictions on four non-banking finance companies (NBFCs), including Aisvard Micro Finance Ltd and Navi Finserv Ltd, in October 2024?

  1. Non-compliance with loan recovery practices
  2. High levels of non-performing assets (NPAs)
  3. Excessive interest rates and pricing policy violations
  4. Failure to maintain adequate capital reserves
  5. Violation of anti-money laundering guidelines

Answer: Excessive interest rates and pricing policy violations

RBI imposed restrictions because the NBFCs were found to have charged excessive interest rates and violated pricing-related norms. The action was a supervisory measure to protect borrowers and ensure fair lending practices.

Q16. What is the minimum regulatory Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital ratio that banks in India must maintain, as per RBI guidelines?

  1. 4.5%
  2. 5.0%
  3. 5.5%
  4. 6.0%
  5. 6.5%

Answer: 4.5%

Under RBI’s Basel III framework, banks must maintain a minimum CET1 capital ratio of 4.5%. This is the basic common equity requirement, excluding additional capital conservation buffers.

Q17. Which company has secured orders from Kerala Gramin Bank and Karnataka Gramin Bank for its banking SuperApp to accelerate digital transformation?

  1. FSS Technologies
  2. Network People Services Technologies Limited
  3. NPCI International Payments Limited
  4. Infibeam Avenues
  5. PayU India

Answer: Network People Services Technologies Limited

Network People Services Technologies Limited (NPST) secured orders from Kerala Gramin Bank and Karnataka Gramin Bank for its banking SuperApp. The solution supports digital transformation and improved customer services.

Q18. What percentage of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) are Small Finance Banks (SFBs) required to allocate to Priority Sector Lending (PSL)?

  1. 50%
  2. 60%
  3. 65%
  4. 75%
  5. 80%

Answer: 75%

Small Finance Banks are required to lend 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit to priority sectors. This is a key regulatory requirement under RBI’s PSL norms.

Q19. Which Indian private sector bank recently inaugurated its first branch in Singapore after receiving a wholesale banking license from the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS)?

  1. ICICI Bank
  2. Axis Bank
  3. HDFC Bank
  4. Kotak Mahindra Bank
  5. Yes Bank

Answer: Kotak Mahindra Bank

Kotak Mahindra Bank inaugurated its first branch in Singapore after obtaining a wholesale banking license from MAS. This marked an important step in its international expansion strategy.

Q20. What is the name of the launch vehicle that will be used for India’s maiden mission to Venus, scheduled for launch in March 2028?

  1. PSLV-C57
  2. GSLV Mk-II
  3. SSLV
  4. GSLV Mk-III

Answer: GSLV Mk-III

India’s maiden Venus mission is planned to use GSLV Mk-III, which has the payload capability needed for such an interplanetary mission. The other options are not suitable for this mission profile.

Q21. Who is the director of the film *Laapataa Ladies*, which has been chosen as India’s official entry for the Oscars 2025?

  1. Zoya Akhtar
  2. Kiran Rao
  3. Meghna Gulzar
  4. Gauri Shinde

Answer: Kiran Rao

*Laapataa Ladies* was directed by Kiran Rao. The film was selected as India’s official entry for the Oscars 2025, making the director a current affairs point for banking and government exams.

Q22. Which of the following government schemes offers the highest interest rate among those mentioned?

  1. Public Provident Fund (PPF)
  2. Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSS)
  3. National Savings Certificate (NSC)
  4. Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP)

Answer: Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSS)

Among the listed schemes, Mahila Samman Savings Certificate generally offers the highest interest rate. It was introduced as a special small savings scheme for women and girls.

Q23. Which fintech firm recently completed its merger with North East Small Finance Bank, consolidating their operations and brand identities into a single institution?

  1. KreditBee
  2. ZestMoney
  3. Slice
  4. MoneyTap

Answer: Slice

Slice completed its merger with North East Small Finance Bank, bringing both businesses under one institutional structure. This was a notable fintech-banking development in current affairs.

Q24. What is the prize money awarded to the winner of the International Booker Prize?

  1. £25,000
  2. £40,000
  3. £50,000
  4. £75,000

Answer: £25,000

The International Booker Prize carries a total prize money of £50,000, shared equally between the author and translator. Therefore, the winner’s prize amount is £25,000 each.

Q25. By which year does India aim to achieve a production capacity of 5 million metric tons of green hydrogen annually under its Green Hydrogen Mission?

  1. 2030
  2. 2027
  3. 2025
  4. 2032

Answer: 2030

India’s Green Hydrogen Mission targets production of 5 million metric tons annually by 2030. This is a key energy-policy current affairs fact.

Q26. What was the paid-up capital of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) when it started operations in 1935?

  1. ₹2 crores
  2. ₹5 crores
  3. ₹10 crores
  4. ₹15 crores

Answer: ₹5 crores

The Reserve Bank of India started operations in 1935 with a paid-up capital of ₹5 crores. This is a frequently asked banking awareness fact.

Q27. Which Australian university recently became the second to formally start its international campus at GIFT City in India?

  1. University of Melbourne
  2. University of Queensland
  3. University of Sydney
  4. University of Wollongong

Answer: University of Wollongong

The University of Wollongong became the second Australian university to formally start its international campus at GIFT City. This is a recent education and current affairs development.

Q28. The Lakhpati Didi scheme, aimed at empowering women through Self-Help Groups (SHGs), is an initiative of which ministry?

  1. Ministry of Women and Child Development
  2. Ministry of Finance
  3. Ministry of Rural Development
  4. Ministry of Labour and Employment

Answer: Ministry of Rural Development

Lakhpati Didi is a women empowerment initiative associated with Self-Help Groups and rural livelihoods. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development.

Q29. Which of the following Chief Ministers received the renowned “President’s Colours” from the Vice-President of India, M. Venkaiah Naidu?

  1. Pramod Sawant
  2. Chandrashekar Rao
  3. Basavaraj Somappa Bommai
  4. Pinarayi Vijayan

Answer: Pinarayi Vijayan

Pinarayi Vijayan is the Chief Minister of Kerala. The President’s Colours is a prestigious honour awarded to military or police units for distinguished service, and it was presented to Kerala Police by Vice-President M. Venkaiah Naidu.

Q30. In a circular issued, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) instructed all parties, aside from card networks and card issuers, to delete all previously stored Card-on-File (CoF) data by—

  1. September 1, 2022
  2. October 1, 2022
  3. September 31, 2022
  4. October 31, 2022

Answer: October 1, 2022

The RBI directed merchants and other entities, except card networks and card issuers, to delete stored CoF data by 1 October 2022. This was part of tightening card tokenisation and payment data storage norms.

Q31. Union Minister for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), Narayan Rane, announced the establishment of an MSME-Technology Centre with an outlay of _____ in Sindhudurg, Maharashtra.

  1. Rs. 100 Crore
  2. Rs. 200 Crore
  3. Rs. 300 Crore
  4. Rs. 400 Crore

Answer: Rs. 200 Crore

Narayan Rane announced an MSME-Technology Centre in Sindhudurg with an outlay of Rs. 200 crore. Such questions test current affairs related to government initiatives for MSMEs.

Q32. FIFA announced the 2026 World Cup venue. It will be held in— (i) USA (ii) Canada (iii) Mexico

  1. Only (i)
  2. Only (ii)
  3. Only (iii)
  4. Both (i) & (ii)

Answer: Both (i) & (ii)

The 2026 FIFA World Cup will be jointly hosted by the USA, Canada, and Mexico. Among the given options, the only one that matches the intended multi-country hosting is the option indicating two countries, though the full official answer includes all three.

Q33. Zomato and Jio-bp entered into an agreement to support Zomato’s commitment to The Climate Group’s EV100 initiative of 100% EV fleet by 2030. Where is the headquarters of Zomato?

  1. Bengaluru
  2. New Delhi
  3. Hyderabad
  4. Gurugram

Answer: Gurugram

Zomato is headquartered in Gurugram, Haryana. The question links a current business partnership with a basic corporate headquarters fact.

Q34. As per Knight Frank’s latest edition of The Wealth Report 2022, what was India’s rank in terms of the number of billionaires globally in 2021?

  1. 1st
  2. 2nd
  3. 3rd
  4. 4th

Answer: 4th

According to Knight Frank’s Wealth Report 2022, India ranked fourth globally in billionaire population in 2021. The report placed the United States first, followed by China and Germany.

Q35. National Safety Day (NSD) is celebrated every year on ________ to commemorate the foundation of the National Safety Council (NSC) of India.

  1. March 2
  2. March 3
  3. March 4
  4. March 5

Answer: March 4

National Safety Day is observed on 4 March every year in India. It marks the foundation day of the National Safety Council of India, which was established to promote safety awareness.

Q36. “Leaders, Politicians, Citizens: Fifty Figures Who Influenced India’s Politics” was authored by—

  1. Rajesh Talwar
  2. Geetanjali Shree
  3. Ashwini Srivastava
  4. Harish Mehta

Answer: Rajesh Talwar

The book “Leaders, Politicians, Citizens: Fifty Figures Who Influenced India’s Politics” was written by Rajesh Talwar. Such questions are common in general awareness sections.

Q37. In which decade did the first transatlantic radio broadcast occur?

  1. 1850s
  2. 1860s
  3. 1870s
  4. 1900s

Answer: 1900s

The first transatlantic radio broadcast took place in the 1900s, after the development of wireless telegraphy and radio technology. Earlier decades were too early for such transmission.

Q38. Who wrote the famous book 'We, the People'?

  1. T. N. Kaul
  2. J. R. D. Tata
  3. Khushwant Singh
  4. Nani Palkhivala

Answer: Nani Palkhivala

'We, the People' was written by Nani Palkhivala. He was a prominent Indian lawyer, economist, and constitutional expert.

Q39. Who is the author of the book 'Nineteen Eighty-Four'?

  1. Thomas Hardy
  2. Emile Zola
  3. George Orwell
  4. Walter Scott

Answer: George Orwell

'Nineteen Eighty-Four' was written by George Orwell. It is a classic dystopian novel about surveillance and totalitarianism.

Q40. Which of the following is NOT written by Munshi Premchand?

  1. Gaban
  2. Godan
  3. Guide
  4. Manasorovar

Answer: Guide

'Guide' is not written by Munshi Premchand; it is a novel by R. K. Narayan. The other options are associated with Premchand's works.

Q41. Who is the author of the book 'Forbidden Verses'?

  1. Salman Rushdie
  2. Abu Nuwas
  3. Ms. Taslima Nasrin
  4. D. H. Lawrence

Answer: Abu Nuwas

'Forbidden Verses' is associated with Abu Nuwas, the celebrated Arabic poet known for his daring poetry. The other options are not the correct author of this work.

Q42. The lead character in the film 'The Bandit Queen' was played by

  1. Rupa Ganguly
  2. Seema Biswas
  3. Pratibha Sinha
  4. Shabana Azmi

Answer: Seema Biswas

Seema Biswas played the lead role in 'The Bandit Queen'. The film is based on the life of Phoolan Devi.

Q43. The ratio of the width of our National Flag to its length is

  1. 3:5
  2. 2:3
  3. 2:4
  4. 3:4

Answer: 2:3

The Indian National Flag has a fixed proportion of width to length. As per the official specification, the ratio is 2:3.

Q44. Rabindranath Tagore's 'Jana Gana Mana' has been adopted as India's National Anthem. How many stanzas of the song were adopted?

  1. Only the first stanza
  2. The whole song
  3. Third and Fourth stanza
  4. First and Second stanza

Answer: Only the first stanza

Only the first stanza of 'Jana Gana Mana' was adopted as the National Anthem of India. The full song was not adopted in its entirety.

Q45. 'Natya Shastra', the main source of India's classical dances, was written by

  1. Nara Muni
  2. Bharat Muni
  3. Abhinav Gupt
  4. Tandu Muni

Answer: Bharat Muni

The 'Natya Shastra' is an ancient Sanskrit treatise on performing arts written by Bharata Muni. It is considered the main source for classical Indian dance.

Q46. 'Dandia' is a popular dance of

  1. Punjab
  2. Gujarat
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Maharashtra

Answer: Gujarat

Dandiya is a popular folk dance of Gujarat, especially performed during Navratri. It is known for its rhythmic stick movements.

Q47. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the Emblem of India are taken from

  1. Rigveda
  2. Satpath Brahmana
  3. Mundak Upanishad
  4. Ramayana

Answer: Mundak Upanishad

'Satyameva Jayate' is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad. It is the national motto of India and appears below the State Emblem.

Q48. Former Australian captain Mark Taylor had several nicknames during his playing career. Which of the following was NOT one of them?

  1. Tubby
  2. Stodge
  3. Helium Bat
  4. Stumpy

Answer: Stumpy

Mark Taylor was known by nicknames such as 'Tubby', 'Stodge', and 'Helium Bat'. 'Stumpy' was not one of his nicknames.

Q49. Which was the first non-Test-playing country to beat India in an international match?

  1. Canada
  2. Sri Lanka
  3. Zimbabwe
  4. East Africa

Answer: Sri Lanka

Sri Lanka was the first non-Test-playing country to defeat India in an international match. At that time, Sri Lanka had not yet become a Test nation.

Q50. Track and field star Carl Lewis won how many gold medals at the 1984 Olympic Games?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Eight

Answer: Four

Carl Lewis won four gold medals at the 1984 Los Angeles Olympics. He excelled in the 100 m, 200 m, long jump, and 4×100 m relay.

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