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JEE Main Chemistry: Biomolecules questions with solutions

305 questions with worked solutions.

Questions

Q1. Table sugar is classified as a

  1. disaccharide made up of D-glucose and D-fructose
  2. monosaccharide
  3. disaccharide composed of two glucose molecules
  4. D-glucose

Answer: disaccharide made up of D-glucose and D-fructose

Table sugar is sucrose, a disaccharide formed from one molecule of D-glucose and one of D-fructose joined by a glycosidic bond.

Q2. Which pair of compounds will both produce a positive result with Tollens’ reagent?

  1. Glucose and sucrose
  2. Fructose and sucrose
  3. Acetophenone and hexanal
  4. Glucose and fructose

Answer: Glucose and fructose

Both glucose and fructose give a positive Tollens test. Glucose has a free aldehyde; fructose (a ketose) tautomerises to an aldose under the basic conditions and is also oxidised. Sucrose is non-reducing (no free anomeric OH).

Q3. The process of breaking down sucrose by hydrolysis is known as

  1. hydration
  2. saponification
  3. esterification
  4. inversion

Answer: inversion

Hydrolysis of sucrose gives an equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose; the optical rotation changes sign from dextro to laevo, so the process is called inversion (and the product is invert sugar).

Q4. Identify the statement that is incorrect.

  1. The α-carbon in an α-amino acid is chiral.
  2. Proteins occurring in the human body are of the L-configuration.
  3. The human body is able to synthesize every protein it requires.
  4. At pH 7, amino and carboxyl groups are present in ionized form.

Answer: The human body is able to synthesize every protein it requires.

The body cannot synthesise all the amino acids it needs; the essential amino acids must come from the diet, so the body cannot make every protein it requires. The other statements are correct.

Q5. How many amino acids present in proteins can be produced by the human body itself?

  1. 20
  2. 10
  3. 5
  4. 14

Answer: 10

Of the 20 standard amino acids, 10 are essential (must come from diet) and the other 10 (non-essential) can be synthesized by the human body.

Q6. Amylose is chemically a ________ made up of about 200–1000 α-D-(+)-glucose units joined through ______ glycosidic bonds.

  1. long unbranched chain, C1–C6
  2. branched chain, C1–C4
  3. long unbranched chain, C1–C4
  4. branched chain, C1–C6

Answer: long unbranched chain, C1–C4

Amylose is a type of starch that consists of a long unbranched chain of glucose units, specifically linked by C1–C4 glycosidic bonds, which allows for a linear structure essential for its function in energy storage.

Q7. Identify the incorrectly paired item.

  1. Insulin – steroid hormone
  2. Estrone – regulates the uterine cycle in females
  3. Oxytocin – causes uterine contraction
  4. Potassium metabisulphite – used as a food preservative

Answer: Insulin – steroid hormone

Insulin is a polypeptide (protein) hormone, not a steroid hormone, so 'Insulin - steroid hormone' is the incorrectly paired item. The other pairings (estrone, oxytocin, potassium metabisulphite) are correct.

Q8. If a DNA strand reads ATGCTTGA, what sequence would appear on the complementary strand?

  1. TACGAACT
  2. TCCGAACT
  3. TACGTACT
  4. TACGTAGT

Answer: TACGAACT

Reading ATGCTTGA and pairing A-T, T-A, G-C, C-G gives the complementary strand TACGAACT.

Q9. In nucleic acids, the repeating order of components is:

  1. phosphate - base - sugar
  2. sugar - base - phosphate
  3. base - sugar - phosphate
  4. base - phosphate - sugar

Answer: sugar - base - phosphate

The correct order of components in nucleic acids is sugar, base, and phosphate, as this sequence reflects the structure of nucleotides, which are the building blocks of nucleic acids like DNA and RNA.

Q10. Which of the following statements about the peptide bond is not correct?

  1. In proteins, the C–N bond is longer than a normal C–N single bond
  2. Spectroscopic studies indicate that the –C–NH– linkage is planar
  3. In proteins, the C–N bond is shorter than a normal C–N single bond
  4. All of the above

Answer: In proteins, the C–N bond is longer than a normal C–N single bond

Because of resonance/partial double-bond character, the peptide C-N bond is shorter than a normal C-N single bond and the -C(=O)-NH- linkage is planar. Therefore the statement that the C-N bond is longer than a normal C-N single bond is incorrect.

Q11. An amino acid has a carboxyl group with pKₐ1 = 2.34 and an ammonium group with pKₐ2 = 9.60. At what pH will this amino acid have its isoelectric point?

  1. 5.97
  2. 2.34
  3. 9.60
  4. 6.97

Answer: 5.97

For a neutral amino acid the isoelectric point is the mean of the two relevant pKa values: pI = (2.34 + 9.60)/2 = 5.97.

Q12. In osazone formation, which structural unit must be present for the reaction to occur effectively?

  1. –CH2OCH3
  2. –CH2OH
  3. –CHOCH3
  4. –CHO

Answer: –CHO

Osazone formation with phenylhydrazine requires a carbonyl adjacent to a CHOH, i.e. an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde/ketone. Of the choices the -CHO group is the structural unit that allows osazone formation.

Q13. Which reagent is used to identify the N-terminal amino acid residue of a peptide?

  1. p-Toluenesulphonyl chloride
  2. 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine
  3. Carboxypeptidase
  4. 2,4-Dinitrofluorobenzene

Answer: 2,4-Dinitrofluorobenzene

The N-terminal residue is identified with Sanger's reagent, 2,4-dinitrofluorobenzene (DNFB), which reacts with the free alpha-amino group to give a yellow DNP-amino acid that survives hydrolysis and can be identified.

Q14. Which pair of functional groups is commonly found in a typical carbohydrate molecule?

  1. –CHO and –COOH
  2. >C=O and –OH
  3. –OH and –CHO
  4. –OH and –COOH

Answer: >C=O and –OH

The correct option includes a carbonyl group (>C=O) and a hydroxyl group (–OH), which are essential components of carbohydrates, specifically in the structure of sugars where these functional groups contribute to their reactivity and properties.

Q15. Enzymes act as biocatalysts and are known to work in which of the following conditions?

  1. An aqueous environment at about 30–35°C and pH 7
  2. An organic solvent medium
  3. An aqueous environment under highly acidic or highly alkaline pH
  4. None of the above

Answer: An aqueous environment at about 30–35°C and pH 7

Enzymes are biocatalysts that function optimally in an aqueous medium at moderate temperature (about 30-35 C) and near-neutral pH (~7). Extreme acidity/alkalinity or organic solvents denature them, so the correct condition is the aqueous, ~30-35 C, pH 7 environment.

Q16. Deficiency of essential amino acids in the diet results in which disease?

  1. Night blindness
  2. Pernicious anaemia
  3. Kwashiorkor
  4. Sickle cell anaemia

Answer: Kwashiorkor

Deficiency of essential amino acids (dietary protein) causes Kwashiorkor. Night blindness is vitamin A, pernicious anaemia is vitamin B12, and sickle cell anaemia is a genetic haemoglobin disorder.

Q17. Which part of DNA serves as the functional instruction set for making a protein?

  1. ribose
  2. gene
  3. nucleoside
  4. nucleotide

Answer: gene

A gene is a specific sequence of DNA that contains the instructions for synthesizing proteins, making it the fundamental unit of heredity and the functional blueprint for protein production.

Q18. Which of the following statements about enzymes is correct?

  1. Enzymes are highly specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned.
  2. Enzymes are usually heterogeneous catalysts and act with very high specificity.
  3. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can ordinarily work at extremely high temperatures (about 1000 K).
  4. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that have distinct, well-defined active sites.

Answer: Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that have distinct, well-defined active sites.

Enzymes function as biological catalysts by binding to specific substrates at their active sites, which are uniquely shaped to facilitate chemical reactions, ensuring high specificity in their action.

Q19. In nucleic acids, the nitrogenous base and the phosphate group are attached to which positions of the sugar in DNA and RNA, respectively?

  1. At the 5′ carbon and the 1′ carbon of the sugar, respectively
  2. At the 1′ carbon and the 5′ carbon of the sugar, respectively
  3. At the 2′ carbon and the 5′ carbon of the sugar, respectively
  4. At the 3′ carbon and the 2′ carbon of the sugar, respectively

Answer: At the 1′ carbon and the 5′ carbon of the sugar, respectively

In a nucleotide the nitrogenous base is attached by an N-glycosidic bond to the 1' carbon of the (deoxy)ribose sugar, while the phosphate group esterifies the 5' carbon. Hence base -> 1', phosphate -> 5'.

Q20. How many molecules of phenylhydrazine are required for one molecule of glucose to form osazone?

  1. three
  2. two
  3. one
  4. four

Answer: three

Glucose reacts with 3 molecules of phenylhydrazine to form the osazone: one forms the hydrazone at C1, a second oxidizes C2 (acting as oxidant, reduced to aniline + NH3), and a third condenses with the resulting C2 keto group. Net: 3 phenylhydrazine per glucose.

Q21. Out of the following, which type of interaction is responsible for the stabilisation of α-helix structure of proteins?

  1. Ionic bonding
  2. Hydrogen bonding
  3. Covalent bonding
  4. van der Waals forces

Answer: Hydrogen bonding

Hydrogen bonding is crucial for stabilizing the α-helix structure in proteins, as these bonds form between the carbonyl oxygen of one amino acid and the amide hydrogen of another, creating a helical shape that is essential for protein structure.

Q22. What is the term used for the change observed in the optical rotation of a freshly prepared glucose solution?

  1. Racemisation
  2. Specific rotation
  3. Mutarotation
  4. Tautomerism

Answer: Mutarotation

A freshly prepared glucose solution slowly changes its optical rotation until equilibrium between the alpha and beta anomers is reached. This phenomenon is called mutarotation.

Q23. RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains

  1. ribose sugar and thymine
  2. ribose sugar and uracil
  3. deoxyribose sugar and thymine
  4. deoxyribose sugar and uracil

Answer: ribose sugar and uracil

RNA is distinct from DNA primarily because it contains ribose sugar instead of deoxyribose and uses uracil in place of thymine, which is found in DNA.

Q24. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives

  1. D-ribose
  2. D-glucose
  3. L-glucose
  4. D-fructose

Answer: D-glucose

Cellulose is a polysaccharide made up of long chains of D-glucose units linked by β-1,4-glycosidic bonds. When cellulose undergoes complete hydrolysis, these bonds are broken, resulting in the release of individual D-glucose molecules.

Q25. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of

  1. dipole-dipole interaction
  2. hydrogen bonding
  3. electrostatic attractions
  4. van der Waals' forces

Answer: hydrogen bonding

The double helical structure of DNA is primarily stabilized by hydrogen bonding between complementary nitrogenous bases, which allows the two strands to coil around each other while maintaining the necessary distance and orientation.

Q26. Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA but is absent from DNA?

  1. Guanine
  2. Cytosine
  3. Uracil
  4. Thymine

Answer: Uracil

Uracil is a nitrogenous base that replaces thymine in RNA, allowing RNA to have a distinct structure and function compared to DNA.

Q27. Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which of the following categories?

  1. An enzyme
  2. A hormone
  3. A co-enzyme
  4. An antibiotic

Answer: A hormone

Insulin is classified as a hormone because it is produced by the pancreas and plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels in the body.

Q28. In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and phosphate ester linkages are at –

  1. C5' and C1' respectively of the sugar molecule
  2. C1' and C5' respectively of the sugar molecule
  3. C2' and C5' respectively of the sugar molecule
  4. C5' and C2' respectively of the sugar molecule

Answer: C1' and C5' respectively of the sugar molecule

The correct option is right because in both DNA and RNA, the heterocyclic base is attached to the C1' carbon of the sugar, while the phosphate group is linked to the C5' carbon, establishing the backbone structure of nucleic acids.

Q29. The term anomers of glucose refers to

  1. enantiomers of glucose
  2. isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1)
  3. isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at carbons one and four (C-1 and C-4)
  4. a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose

Answer: isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1)

Anomers are a specific type of stereoisomer that differ in configuration at the anomeric carbon, which is carbon one (C-1) in glucose. This distinction is crucial for understanding the different forms of glucose, such as alpha and beta anomers.

Q30. Which of the following compounds can be detected by Molisch's test ?

  1. Nitro compounds
  2. Sugars
  3. Amines
  4. Primary alcohols

Answer: Sugars

Molisch's test is specifically designed to detect the presence of carbohydrates, which include sugars. The test relies on the reaction of sugars with alpha-naphthol in the presence of sulfuric acid, resulting in a purple ring, indicating a positive result.

Q31. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. All amino acids except lysine are optically active
  2. All amino acids are optically active
  3. All amino acids except glycine are optically active
  4. All amino acids except glutamic acids are optically active

Answer: All amino acids except glycine are optically active

All standard amino acids have a chiral alpha-carbon except glycine (its alpha-carbon bears two H atoms), so all amino acids except glycine are optically active.

Q32. Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA?

  1. Quinoline
  2. Adenine
  3. Cytosine
  4. Thymine

Answer: Quinoline

DNA contains adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine. Quinoline is not a nucleobase at all, so it is the base not present in DNA.

Q33. Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble ?

  1. Vitamin E
  2. Vitamin K
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D

Answer: Vitamin C

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is water soluble, whereas vitamins D, E and K are fat soluble. Hence the water-soluble vitamin here is Vitamin C.

Q34. Thiol group is present in:

  1. Cysteine
  2. Methionine
  3. Cytosine
  4. Cystine

Answer: Cysteine

The thiol (-SH) group is found in cysteine. Methionine contains a thioether (-S-CH3), and cystine has a disulfide (-S-S-) linkage. Answer: option 0.

Q35. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives:

  1. n-Hexane
  2. 1-Hexene
  3. Hexanoic acid
  4. 6-Iodohexanal

Answer: n-Hexane

On prolonged heating with HI, all the -OH and the carbonyl groups of glucose are reduced, and the straight C6 chain survives, giving n-hexane. This established the unbranched six-carbon skeleton of glucose.

Q36. The increasing order of pKa of the following amino acids in aqueous solution is: Gly Asp Lys Arg

  1. Asp < Gly < Arg < Lys
  2. Gly < Asp < Arg < Lys
  3. Asp < Gly < Lys < Arg
  4. Arg < Lys < Gly < Asp

Answer: Asp < Gly < Lys < Arg

Ordering by characteristic pKa: Asp side chain ~3.7 < Gly (alpha-NH3+ ~9.6) < Lys epsilon-NH3+ ~10.5 < Arg guanidinium ~12.5. Since the guanidinium group of arginine has the highest pKa, the increasing order is Asp < Gly < Lys < Arg.

Q37. Match the following: (i) Riboflavin (ii) Thiamine (iii) Pyridoxine (iv) Ascorbic acid (a) Beriberi (b) Scurvy (c) Cheilosis (d) Convulsions

  1. (i) – (a), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (b)
  2. (i) – (c), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (b)
  3. (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (b)
  4. (i) – (d), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (c)

Answer: (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (b)

Deficiency diseases: riboflavin (B2)->cheilosis, thiamine (B1)->beriberi, pyridoxine (B6)->convulsions, ascorbic acid (C)->scurvy. This gives (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-b.

Q38. Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA ?

  1. Adenine
  2. Cytosine
  3. Thymine
  4. Quinoline

Answer: Quinoline

Quinoline is not a nucleotide base found in DNA; instead, DNA contains adenine, cytosine, and thymine as its primary nitrogenous bases.

Q39. Among the following the incorrect statement is -

  1. Cellulose and amylase have 1,4-glycosidic linkage
  2. Lactose contains β-D-galactose and D-glucose
  3. Maltose and lactose have 1,4-glycosidic linkage
  4. Sucrose and amylase have 1,2-glycosidic linkage

Answer: Sucrose and amylase have 1,2-glycosidic linkage

The statement is incorrect because sucrose is a disaccharide formed from glucose and fructose linked by a 1,2-glycosidic bond, while amylase is an enzyme that breaks down starch and does not contain any glycosidic linkages.

Q40. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives: (1) n-Hexane (2) 1-Hexene (3) Hexanoic acid (4) 6-iodohexanal

  1. n-Hexane
  2. 1-Hexene
  3. Hexanoic acid
  4. 6-iodohexanal

Answer: n-Hexane

Prolonged heating of glucose with hydrogen iodide (HI) leads to the reduction of the sugar, resulting in the formation of n-hexane through the complete deoxygenation and saturation of the carbon chain.

Q41. Which of the following test cannot be used for identifying amino acids ?

  1. Ninhydrin test
  2. Barfoed Test
  3. Xanthoproteic test
  4. Biuret test

Answer: Barfoed Test

Ninhydrin, xanthoproteic and biuret tests are all used for amino acids/proteins. The Barfoed test distinguishes monosaccharides from reducing disaccharides (a carbohydrate test) and cannot be used to identify amino acids.

Q42. The increasing order of pKa of the following amino acids in aqueous solution is: Gly Asp Lys Arg

  1. Asp < Gly < Lys < Arg
  2. Arg < Lys < Gly < Asp
  3. Gly < Asp < Arg < Lys
  4. Asp < Gly < Arg < Lys

Answer: Asp < Gly < Lys < Arg

The pKa values of amino acids reflect their side chain acidity; as the side chain becomes more acidic, the pKa decreases. Aspartic acid has the lowest pKa due to its carboxyl side chain, followed by glycine, lysine, and arginine, which have progressively higher pKa values due to their basic side chains.

Q43. Fructose and glucose can be distinguished by -

  1. (1) Fehling's test
  2. (2) Seliwanoff's test
  3. (3) Barfoed's test
  4. (4) Benedict's test

Answer: (2) Seliwanoff's test

Seliwanoff's test gives a fast cherry-red color with ketoses like fructose but is slow/negative with aldoses like glucose. Fehling's, Benedict's, and Barfoed's react with both, so they cannot distinguish them.

Q44. The peptide that gives positive ceric ammonium nitrate and carbylamine tests is:

  1. Gln - Asp
  2. Asp - Gln
  3. Ser - Lys
  4. Lys - Asp

Answer: Ser - Lys

Ceric ammonium nitrate test is positive for -OH (serine side chain); carbylamine test is positive for a primary amine (lysine side chain). The dipeptide Ser-Lys gives both positive tests.

Q45. Among the following compounds most basic amino acid is (1) Lysine (2) Asparagine (3) Histidine (4) Serine

  1. (1) Lysine
  2. (2) Asparagine
  3. (3) Histidine
  4. (4) Serine

Answer: (1) Lysine

Lysine carries an additional amino (-NH2) group on its side chain, giving it the highest basicity among the listed amino acids. Hence lysine is the most basic.

Q46. The correct statement(s) among I to III with respect to potassium ions that are abundant within the cell fluid is/are I. They activate many enzymes II. They participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP III. Along with sodium ions they are responsible for the transmission of nerve signals

  1. III only
  2. I and II only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III

Answer: I and III only

Potassium ions play a crucial role in activating various enzymes, which is essential for numerous cellular processes, and they are also involved in the transmission of nerve signals alongside sodium ions. However, while potassium is important for cellular functions, it does not directly participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP, which primarily involves other molecules.

Q47. Consider the following reactions: (i) Glucose + ROH dry HCl Acetal x eq. of (CH3CO)2O acetyl derivative (ii) Glucose Ni/H2 A y eq. of (CH3CO)2O acetyl derivative (iii) Glucose z eq. of (CH3CO)2O acetyl derivative 'x', 'y' and 'z' in these reactions are respectively.

  1. 5, 6 & 5
  2. 4, 5 & 5
  3. 5, 4 & 5
  4. 4, 6 & 5

Answer: 4, 6 & 5

(i) Forming the methyl acetal (glycoside) consumes the anomeric OH, leaving 4 OH to acetylate, so x=4. (ii) Ni/H2 reduces glucose to sorbitol, an open-chain hexitol with 6 OH, so y=6. (iii) Glucose itself has 5 OH, so z=5. Thus x,y,z = 4, 6 & 5.

Q48. The correct observation in the following reactions is: Sucrose —(Glycosidic bond cleavage / Hydrolysis)→ A + B —(Seliwanoff's reagent)→ ?

  1. Formation of blue colour
  2. Formation of violet colour
  3. Formation of red colour
  4. Gives no colour

Answer: Formation of red colour

The correct option is right because when sucrose is hydrolyzed, it breaks down into glucose and fructose. Fructose reacts with Seliwanoff's reagent to produce a red color, indicating the presence of a ketose sugar.

Q49. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid:

  1. Valine
  2. Leucine
  3. Lysine
  4. Tyrosine

Answer: Tyrosine

Tyrosine is classified as a non-essential amino acid because the body can synthesize it from phenylalanine, whereas valine, leucine, and lysine are essential amino acids that must be obtained through diet.

Q50. Which one of the following statements not true ?

  1. Lactose contains α-glycosidic linkage between C1 of galactose and C4 of glucose.
  2. Lactose (C12H22O11) is a disaccharide and it contains 8 hydroxyl groups.
  3. On acid hydrolysis, lactose gives one molecule of D(+)-glucose and one molecule of D(+)-galactose.
  4. Lactose is a reducing sugar and it gives Fehling's test.

Answer: Lactose contains α-glycosidic linkage between C1 of galactose and C4 of glucose.

In lactose the linkage between C1 of galactose and C4 of glucose is a beta-1,4-glycosidic bond, not alpha. The other statements (8 hydroxyl groups, hydrolysis to glucose + galactose, reducing sugar giving Fehling's test) are all true. So the untrue statement is the one claiming an alpha-linkage.

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