Exams › SSC CGL (Prelims) › General › Indian Polity and Governance
63 questions with worked solutions.
Q1. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) introduces:
Answer: Video recording of confessions
The BNSS introduces procedural reforms, including the use of video recording for certain confessions and statements to improve transparency. It does not eliminate bail provisions or assume guilt.
Answer: Only 1
DigiLocker is a digital document wallet that allows citizens to store and access official documents electronically, so statement 1 is correct. BharatNet is aimed at providing broadband connectivity to Gram Panchayats and rural areas, not urban metro connectivity, so statement 2 is false.
Q3. What is the main objective of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
Answer: To ensure transparency in governance
The RTI Act, 2005 empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities. Its main objective is to promote transparency and accountability in governance.
Answer: A is true but R is false
Census data is indeed important for planning social welfare policies, so Assertion (A) is true. However, census operations in India are conducted every ten years, not every five years, so Reason (R) is false.
Q5. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam primarily relates to:
Answer: Evidence law
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam is the new law dealing with evidence in India. It primarily relates to evidence law, replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q6. The ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Divas’ is celebrated on:
Answer: 9th January
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is observed on 9 January every year to mark the return of Mahatma Gandhi to India from South Africa in 1915. It celebrates the contribution of the Indian diaspora to the nation.
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty as per the 42nd Amendment?
Answer: To pay taxes on time
Article 51A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, lists Fundamental Duties such as abiding by the Constitution, safeguarding public property, and protecting the environment. Paying taxes on time is not included as a Fundamental Duty.
Q8. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which offence would qualify as organized crime?
Answer: Coordinated cyber fraud by a group
Organized crime under BNS involves unlawful activity carried out by a group or syndicate, often for material benefit. A coordinated cyber fraud by a group fits this idea because it is planned and collective. The other options are individual or minor offences.
Answer: Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
The first census after India became independent was indeed conducted in 1951, so Assertion (A) is true. Census operations in India are generally conducted every ten years, so Reason (R) is also true. However, R does not explain why 1951 was the first nationwide census in independent India.
Q10. Under the Right to Information Act, information must generally be provided within:
Answer: 30 days
Under the RTI Act, the Public Information Officer is generally required to provide information within 30 days of receiving the request. Special cases may have different timelines, but the standard answer is 30 days.
Q11. Which Fundamental Right ensures equality before law?
Answer: Right to Equality
The Right to Equality under Articles 14 to 18 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws. Therefore, it is the correct Fundamental Right for this question.
Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
In India’s parliamentary system, the President is the nominal or formal head of the executive. All executive actions of the Government of India are taken in the President’s name, which explains why the assertion is true and the reason correctly explains it.
Q13. In which year was the National Food Security Act passed?
Answer: 2013
The National Food Security Act was passed in 2013. It aimed to provide subsidized food grains to eligible beneficiaries under the public distribution system.
Q14. Which Constitutional Amendment is known as the “Mini-Constitution”?
Answer: 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment is called the “Mini-Constitution” because it made extensive changes to the Indian Constitution. It is one of the most significant and controversial amendments in Indian history.
Answer: Both 1 and 2
The Fifth Schedule provides for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. It also empowers the Governor to make regulations, including restricting or prohibiting transfer of land by tribals to non-tribals in Scheduled Areas.
Q16. Which Article deals with the President’s ordinance-making power?
Answer: Article 123
Article 123 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and immediate action is needed. The other articles relate to different constitutional matters.
Answer: Jurisdictional Magistrate
Under BNSS, the right to statutory or default bail is first asserted before the jurisdictional Magistrate. If the Magistrate cannot grant it in the given circumstances, the matter may move to a higher court, but the first application is before the Magistrate. Hence, the correct answer is Jurisdictional Magistrate.
Answer: Both 1 and 2
GST Council decisions are recommendatory in nature, guiding the GST framework but not acting as direct law by themselves. States can tax intra-state supply through the GST system as part of the shared taxation structure. Therefore, both statements are correct.
Q19. Which of the following books on modern Indian history and society is authored by Shashi Tharoor?
Answer: Inglorious Empire
Inglorious Empire is authored by Shashi Tharoor. The other books are written by Ramachandra Guha, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Jean Drèze with Amartya Sen respectively. This is a common static GK question on books and authors.
Answer: A – C – B
The Planning Commission was set up in 1950, the First Five-Year Plan began in 1951, and NITI Aayog was formed in 2015. So the correct chronological order is A – C – B.
Q21. Judicial review in India is derived from:
Answer: USA Constitution
Judicial review in India is based on the American model, where courts can examine the constitutionality of laws and executive actions. The Indian Constitution incorporates this power through the Supreme Court and High Courts.
Q22. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) is associated with:
Answer: Criminal procedure reforms
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) is the new law that replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure, so it relates to criminal procedure reforms. It is not connected with civil procedure, corporate law, or electoral reforms.
Q23. Which of the following best describes the constitutional status of the Finance Commission of India?
Answer: It is constituted periodically by the President to make recommendations on fiscal distribution.
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280, and it is constituted by the President every five years or earlier as needed. It recommends the distribution of tax revenues and grants between the Union and the States.
Answer: Only 1
Article 136 gives the Supreme Court discretionary power to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order of any court or tribunal. It does not apply automatically to all court-martial decisions without exception, so statement 2 is incorrect.
Q25. Taxes on professions are limited by Article:
Answer: 276
Article 276 of the Constitution limits the tax on professions, trades, callings, and employments. States may levy such a tax, but the amount cannot exceed the constitutional ceiling.
Answer: Goa
Goa became the first state to achieve 100% functional tap water connections in rural households under the Jal Jeevan Mission. This was reported as a milestone in rural drinking water supply.
Q27. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which type of evidence is admissible in digital form?
Answer: Electronic records
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, electronic records are admissible as evidence in digital form. The law modernizes evidence rules to include digital documents and data.
Q28. Which Act has replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973?
Answer: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
The CrPC, 1973 has been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS). Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita replaces the IPC, while Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam replaces the Evidence Act.
Answer: 280
The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution of India. It recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States.
Answer: The Information Technology Act, 2000
The Information Technology Act, 2000 provides legal recognition to electronic records and digital signatures in India. It is the primary law supporting the admissibility and validity of such records in courts.
Answer: Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is the government programme aimed at providing all-weather road connectivity to unconnected rural habitations. The other options relate to ports, highways, or cities.
Answer: Establishment of a Consent Manager framework
The Digital Personal Data Protection framework includes a Consent Manager system to help individuals manage, review, and withdraw consent. This supports grievance redressal in a digital and transparent manner. The other options do not relate to the Act's grievance mechanism.
Answer: Ordinary
A bill concerning the appointment or removal of a Governor is not a Money Bill or a Financial Bill. Therefore, it is treated as an Ordinary Bill in Parliament. The correct classification depends on the subject matter of the bill.
Answer: Allowing trials in absentia for proclaimed offenders
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 includes a provision allowing trials in absentia for proclaimed offenders. This is intended to modernise and speed up the criminal justice process when accused persons evade the court.
Answer: Indian Penal Code, 1860
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaces the Indian Penal Code, 1860. The IPC was the colonial-era law that defined offences and punishments in India.
Answer: Article 338B
The NCBC was given constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, and its provisions are under Article 338B. Article 340 deals with backward classes generally, but not the commission's constitutional status.
Answer: 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission and is provided for under Article 263. Statement 3 is incorrect because the council does not have binding powers over States; it is mainly advisory and consultative.
Answer: A new chapter specifically addressing sexual offenses against women and children
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduced structural changes in criminal law, including a dedicated chapter for offences against women and children. This was done to consolidate and modernize provisions related to sexual offences and related crimes.
Q39. Under Article 356, what is the consequence of the proclamation of President's Rule in a state?
Answer: The Governor assumes the functions of the State Government
Under Article 356, when President's Rule is imposed, the state government is suspended and the Governor administers the state on behalf of the President. The High Court remains intact, and fundamental rights are not automatically lost.
Q40. Who inaugurated the Statue of Equality in Hyderabad in February 2022?
Answer: Narendra Modi
The Statue of Equality in Hyderabad was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in February 2022. It is a major memorial dedicated to the 11th-century saint Ramanujacharya.
Q41. Which administrative body was created under the Regulating Act of 1773 in Bengal?
Answer: Supreme Court at Calcutta
The Regulating Act of 1773 led to the establishment of the Supreme Court at Calcutta. This was an important step in the development of the British judicial system in India.
Answer: Community Service
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita introduced community service as a punishment for certain petty offences. This is a new reformative measure in India’s updated criminal law system.
Answer: 1 and 2 only
Article 246A gives concurrent power to Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on GST, so statement 1 is correct. Parliament has exclusive power over inter-state supply of goods and services, so statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because GST subsumed many indirect taxes, but not all state levies in every sense.
Q44. Who is the 20th Governor of Uttar Pradesh since 2019?
Answer: Anandiben Patel
Anandiben Patel has been the Governor of Uttar Pradesh since 2019. The question asks for the 20th governor since the state’s formation/sequence used in the exam context, and among the given options she is the correct one.
Answer: Stealing personal details to create fake identities and commit fraud
Identity theft cybercrime involves stealing personal information and using it to impersonate someone or commit fraud. The other options do not necessarily constitute identity theft.
Answer: It must be accompanied by a certificate
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, electronic records generally require a certificate to establish authenticity and admissibility. This certificate serves as a legal assurance about the manner in which the record was produced and preserved.
Q47. What does the term Zero FIR imply under the new law?
Answer: FIR can be filed at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction
Zero FIR means a First Information Report can be registered at any police station, even if it does not have territorial jurisdiction. It is then transferred to the appropriate police station for further action.
Q48. In BNSS, what provision strengthens witness protection during trial?
Answer: Use of video conferencing and identity concealment for vulnerable witnesses
BNSS includes measures that help protect witnesses during trial, such as video conferencing and concealment of identity for vulnerable witnesses. These provisions reduce intimidation and improve witness safety.
Answer: It is not mentioned in the Constitution and was granted by the National Development Council.
Special Category State status is not mentioned in the Constitution. It was introduced through the National Development Council to provide special assistance to certain states with difficult terrain, strategic location, or other disadvantages.
Q50. Which government scheme aims to provide social security to workers in the unorganized sector?
Answer: Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
Atal Pension Yojana provides pension and social security benefits, especially to workers in the unorganized sector. The other schemes focus on employment, banking inclusion, or health services.