Question 1

Approval by both Houses of Parliament for a proclamation of National Emergency is needed within:

Accepted Answer

1 month. A proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month. If not approved, it ceases to operate after that period.

Question 2

Which Article of the Constitution deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister?

Accepted Answer

Article 75. Article 75 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers. It is part of the provisions relating to the Union Council of Ministers.

Question 3

Which commission recommended reforms in Centre-State financial relations?

Accepted Answer

Sarkaria Commission. The Sarkaria Commission was set up to review Centre-State relations and recommended reforms in various aspects, including financial relations. The Finance Commission deals specifically with distribution of revenues, not the broader federal relationship.

Question 4

The Chief Minister of a state is appointed by:

Accepted Answer

Governor. In India, the Chief Minister is formally appointed by the Governor of the state. Usually, the person who commands majority support in the legislative assembly is appointed.

Question 5

Which statement correctly reflects Article 200 regarding state bills?

Accepted Answer

Governor can reserve a bill for the President.. Article 200 of the Constitution gives the Governor options regarding a state bill, including assent, withholding assent, returning the bill, or reserving it for the President. Therefore, the correct statement is that the Governor can reserve a bill for the President.

Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India: 1. It is a constitutional body. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President. 3. Its tenure is fixed at ten years. Which of the above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body, and the Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President. However, its tenure is not fixed at ten years, so statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 7

Arrange the steps in the passage of an Ordinary Bill in Parliament: A. Introduction in either House B. Passage by both Houses D. Consideration in the second House C. President’s assent

Accepted Answer

A - D - B - C. An ordinary bill is first introduced in either House, then considered in the second House, passed by both Houses, and finally sent for the President’s assent. So the correct sequence is A - D - B - C.

Question 8

The ‘Mission Karmayogi’ programme is implemented by which department?

Accepted Answer

Department of Personnel and Training. Mission Karmayogi is the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building. It is implemented by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).

Question 9

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, digital evidence is treated as:

Accepted Answer

Primary evidence if authenticated. Under the new criminal law framework, authenticated digital evidence is admissible and can be treated as primary evidence. The key requirement is proper authentication.

Question 10

Consider the following statements: 1. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body. 2. Its recommendations are legally binding on the government. A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

Only 1. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution. However, its recommendations are advisory in nature and are not legally binding on the government.

Question 11

How are Money Bills treated in Parliament under the Constitution?

Accepted Answer

Rajya Sabha can make recommendations within 14 days. Under Article 109, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha may only make recommendations within 14 days, and the Lok Sabha may accept or reject them.

Question 12

Article 356 of the Constitution deals with:

Accepted Answer

President’s Rule in states. Article 356 empowers the President to impose President’s Rule in a state when the constitutional machinery fails. It is part of the emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution.

Question 13

Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court can transfer cases between High Courts. 2. Article 139A empowers the Supreme Court in this regard.

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. The Supreme Court has the power to transfer cases between High Courts in appropriate situations. Article 139A of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court this authority, so both statements are correct.

Question 14

Article 263 of the Indian Constitution relates to:

Accepted Answer

Inter-State Council. Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council for better coordination between states and the Centre. It is not related to emergency, finance, or elections.

Question 15

Find the odd one out.

Accepted Answer

Supreme Court. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and Vidhan Sabha are all legislative bodies. Supreme Court is the apex judicial body, so it is the odd one out.

Question 16

The President of India promulgates ordinances under which Article?

Accepted Answer

Article 123. Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session. The other articles deal with money bills, President's rule, and constitutional amendment respectively.

Question 17

Consider the statements: 1. The Finance Commission is constituted every five years. 2. It is mentioned under Article 280.

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President every five years, though it can be constituted earlier if necessary. It is provided for under Article 280 of the Constitution, so both statements are correct.

Question 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. 2. Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill.

Accepted Answer

Only 1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, so statement 1 is correct. Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 19

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. He can vote in the Rajya Sabha only in case of a tie.

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. The Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. As Chairman, he does not normally vote, but can exercise a casting vote in case of a tie.

Question 20

With reference to a Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill. 2. A Money Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament to become law. 3. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill withi

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies a bill as a Money Bill. A Money Bill does not need to be passed by both Houses; the Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes and must return it within 14 days.

Question 21

Consider the following statements: 1. India has a written Constitution. 2. India follows a parliamentary system. Which of the statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. India has a written Constitution, and it follows a parliamentary system of government. Therefore, both statements are correct.

Question 22

Consider the following statements: 1. Both the Union Council of Ministers and the State Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to their respective legislatures. 2. The President of India acts on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers in the exercise of most of his

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. In India’s parliamentary system, both the Union and State Councils of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly respectively. The President generally acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, so both statements are correct.

Question 23

Find the odd one out.

Accepted Answer

Article 360. Articles 14, 19, and 21 are Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution. Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency under Part XVIII, so it is the odd one out.

Question 24

Which of the following is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution?

Accepted Answer

To protect and improve the natural environment. Article 51A(g) of the Indian Constitution makes it a Fundamental Duty to protect and improve the natural environment. The other options relate to Directive Principles or constitutional governance provisions.

Question 25

Which Article of the Indian Constitution allows Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List with the consent of States?

Accepted Answer

Article 252. Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List if the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions to that effect. The law then applies to those states and can later be adopted by others.

Question 26

Consider the following statements: 1. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with National Emergency. 2. A National Emergency can be proclaimed due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. Which of the above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. Article 352 deals with National Emergency in India. It can be proclaimed on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion, so both statements are correct.

Question 27

What does Article 269 of the Indian Constitution primarily deal with?

Accepted Answer

Taxes levied and collected by the Union and distributed between Union and States. Article 269 deals with taxes and duties levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States in the manner provided by Parliament. It is different from GST distribution and grants-in-aid provisions.

Question 28

The minimum age to become a member of the Rajya Sabha is:

Accepted Answer

30. A person must be at least 30 years old to become a member of the Rajya Sabha. This is the constitutional age requirement for the upper house of Parliament.

Question 29

Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Inter-State Council to facilitate coordination between the Union and the States?

Accepted Answer

Article 263. Article 263 of the Constitution empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council for better coordination between the Union and the States. The other articles relate to finance commission, all-India services, and President’s rule.

Question 30

Arrange chronologically: 1. Golaknath case 2. Kesavananda Bharati case 3. Minerva Mills case

Accepted Answer

1 – 2 – 3. The Golaknath case was decided in 1967, Kesavananda Bharati in 1973, and Minerva Mills in 1980. So the correct chronological order is 1–2–3.

Question 31

Which feature of the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Irish Constitution?

Accepted Answer

Directive Principles. The Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by the Irish Constitution. They provide guidelines for governance and are not enforceable by courts.

Question 32

Panchayati Raj was constitutionalized by which Amendment?

Accepted Answer

73rd. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions in India. It added Part IX to the Constitution and strengthened rural local governance.

Question 33

Under GST voting rules:

Accepted Answer

Decisions need three-fourths weighted majority. GST Council decisions are taken by a weighted voting system, not by simple one-person-one-vote. A three-fourths majority of weighted votes is required for a decision. The Centre does not have a veto, and states do not have equal individual votes.

Question 34

Which statements are correct? 1. The Home Ministry handles internal security. 2. Cabinet Ministers hold office at the President’s pleasure. 3. A minister has a fixed constitutional tenure.

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. The Home Ministry is responsible for internal security, so statement 1 is correct. Cabinet Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, so statement 2 is also correct. A minister does not have a fixed constitutional tenure, making statement 3 incorrect.

Question 35

The Vice-Chairman of a Zonal Council is chosen from among the Chief Ministers of member states and holds office on what basis?

Accepted Answer

Rotation among member states. The Vice-Chairman of a Zonal Council is selected from among the Chief Ministers of the member states and the position rotates among them. This ensures equal participation of the states in the council's functioning.

Question 36

Consider the following statements regarding Article 361 of the Indian Constitution: 1. The President of India is not answerable to any court for the exercise of official powers and duties. 2. No criminal proceedings can be instituted against the President during the term of office. 3. Civi

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Article 361 grants the President immunity from being answerable to any court for official acts, and criminal proceedings cannot be instituted during the term of office. Civil proceedings are not allowed without prior notice, so statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 37

Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on the State List when:

Accepted Answer

Rajya Sabha passes a resolution. Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on a State List matter if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by at least two-thirds of members present and voting. This is a special constitutional mechanism linked to national interest.

Question 38

The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India plays a central role in the electoral system. In light of the current legal framework, which of the following statements best describes the position of the CEC?

Accepted Answer

The CEC holds office for six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.. The Chief Election Commissioner serves for six years or until attaining the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The appointment is made by the President, not by the Supreme Court collegium or by seniority.

Question 39

What is the primary purpose of Article 262 of the Indian Constitution?

Accepted Answer

To empower Parliament to provide for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes. Article 262 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys. It also allows Parliament to exclude the jurisdiction of courts in such matters.

Question 40

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of sedition has been:

Accepted Answer

Renamed with expanded scope on sovereignty. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaces the old sedition provision with a broader offence related to acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. Thus, the offence has been renamed and its scope expanded.

Question 41

Consider the following statements: 1. The President can grant pardon under Article 72. 2. The Governor can grant pardon under Article 161. Which of the above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. Article 72 of the Constitution gives the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions. Article 161 gives similar powers to the Governor for state matters. Therefore, both statements are correct.

Question 42

With reference to the constitutional remedies under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The right guaranteed under Article 32 itself forms a Fundamental Right. 2. Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. 3. T

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Article 32 is a Fundamental Right because it guarantees the right to constitutional remedies. Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for other purposes, so Statement 2 is incorrect. Since High Courts' jurisdiction under Article 226 is wider than the Supreme Court's under Article 32, Statement 3 is correct.

Question 43

Consider the following statements: 1. Police is a State subject. 2. Defence is a Union subject. 3. Education is in the Concurrent List. Which of the statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. Police is a State subject, defence is a Union subject, and education is in the Concurrent List. Hence, all three statements are correct.

Question 44

The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 initially fixed the minimum marriage age for girls at:

Accepted Answer

14 years. The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 initially fixed the minimum marriage age for girls at 14 years. Later amendments increased the age, but the original provision was 14.

Question 45

The Uniform Civil Code would primarily impact:

Accepted Answer

Personal laws governing marriage and inheritance. A Uniform Civil Code aims to replace separate personal laws with a common set of rules for civil matters. Its primary impact would be on personal laws governing marriage and inheritance.

Question 46

Find the odd one out.

Accepted Answer

Green Revolution. Directive Principles, Fundamental Rights, and the Preamble are parts of the Indian Constitution. Green Revolution is an agricultural development program, so it is the odd one out.

Question 47

Which of the following statements regarding financial provisions under the Indian Constitution is/are correct? 1. The Public Account of India is mentioned under Article 266. 2. Money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without parliamentary approval.

Accepted Answer

Only 1. Statement 1 is correct because Article 266 deals with the Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund, and Public Account of India. Statement 2 is incorrect because withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund generally require parliamentary approval through appropriation.

Question 48

Find the odd one out.

Accepted Answer

Constitution. Parliament, Assembly, and Judiciary are institutions/organs of government. The Constitution is the supreme legal document that lays down the framework for these institutions, so it is different from the others.

Question 49

Who is serving as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India as of 2026?

Accepted Answer

K. Sanjay Murthy. K. Sanjay Murthy is the serving Comptroller and Auditor General of India as of 2026. The other options are former CAGs.

Question 50

Which of the following statements about the Finance Commission of India is correct?

Accepted Answer

Both A and B. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India under Article 280. It also recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States, so both statements are correct.

SSC CGL (Prelims) General: Indian Polity questions with solutions

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