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ExamsNEETBiology › Human Health and Disease

NEET Biology: Human Health and Disease questions with solutions

224 questions with worked solutions.

Questions

Q1. Diarrhea through food can be avoided by

  1. Eating raw food
  2. Refrigerating the food
  3. Thawing of food again and again
  4. None of the above

Answer: Refrigerating the food

Refrigeration slows the growth of bacteria and other microbes that can contaminate food and cause diarrhea. Raw food and repeated thawing increase the risk of contamination and spoilage.

Q2. Renal rickets is related to old age

  1. Vitamin D deficiency
  2. Osteoporosis
  3. Chronic kidney disease
  4. Both B and C

Answer: Chronic kidney disease

Renal rickets occurs when diseased kidneys cannot properly activate vitamin D or maintain normal calcium-phosphate balance, leading to defective bone mineralization. This is classically associated with chronic kidney disease.

Q3. Which is the drug used by health workers in the management of acute respiratory illness?

  1. Co - trimoxazole
  2. Chloramphenicol
  3. Benzyl penicillin
  4. Gentamycin

Answer: Co - trimoxazole

Co-trimoxazole is commonly used in the management of acute respiratory illness because it covers many typical bacterial causes seen in primary care. The other options are generally reserved for different infections or more severe situations.

Q4. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.

  1. (a) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
  2. (b) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
  3. (c) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
  4. (d) Salmonella typhi / Widal test

Answer: (d) Salmonella typhi / Widal test

Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi. The Widal test detects antibodies against Salmonella antigens and is the standard confirmatory test among the options given.

Q5. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option. Column-I: (a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis (d) Malaria Column-II: (i) Wuchereria (ii) Plasmodium (iii) Salmonella (iv) Haemophilus

  1. (a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
  2. (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
  3. (c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
  4. (d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Typhoid is caused by Salmonella, pneumonia by Haemophilus, filariasis by Wuchereria, and malaria by Plasmodium. So the correct sequence is (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

Q6. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is

  1. (a) Sporozoites
  2. (b) Female gametocytes
  3. (c) Male gametocytes
  4. (d) Trophozoites

Answer: (a) Sporozoites

Sporozoites are the infective stage of Plasmodium for humans because they are injected into the bloodstream by an infected female Anopheles mosquito. Gametocytes are the forms taken up by the mosquito, while trophozoites develop later inside human red blood cells.

Q7. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

  1. Dengue fever - arbovirus
  2. Plague - Yersinia pestis
  3. Syphilis - Trichuris trichura
  4. Malaria - Plasmodium vivax

Answer: Syphilis - Trichuris trichura

Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, not Trichuris trichura. The other pairs are correctly matched with their known causative agents.

Q8. Which one of the following pairs of diseases both are caused by viruses?

  1. Tetanus and typhoid
  2. Whooping cough and sleeping sickness
  3. Syphilis and AIDS
  4. Measles and rabies

Answer: Measles and rabies

Measles and rabies are both viral diseases: measles is caused by the measles virus, and rabies is caused by the rabies virus. The other options each include at least one disease caused by bacteria or a protozoan.

Q9. Which one of the following diseases is now considered nearly eradicated from India?

  1. Plague
  2. Kala azar
  3. Small pox
  4. Poliomyelitis

Answer: Small pox

Smallpox was eradicated globally and is considered nearly eradicated from India due to successful mass vaccination and surveillance. The other diseases listed still occur or have not been eradicated in the same way.

Q10. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?

  1. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes - Cellular barriers
  2. Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injection - Active immunity
  3. Saliva in mouth and tear in eyes - Physical barriers
  4. Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urogenital tract and the HCl in stomach - Physiological barriers

Answer: Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urogenital tract and the HCl in stomach - Physiological barriers

Mucus coating and stomach HCl are both physiological barriers because they create conditions that inhibit or destroy pathogens. The other options mismatch the examples with the wrong immunity category.

Q11. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

  1. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
  2. The antibodies against smallpox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes.
  3. Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains.
  4. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes.

Answer: Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.

A viper bite is treated with antivenom, which contains preformed antibodies that neutralize the venom immediately. This is passive immunity; the other options incorrectly assign antibody production, antibody structure, or graft rejection to the wrong cells.

Q12. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to:

  1. Cell-mediated immune response
  2. Passive immune response
  3. Innate immune response
  4. Humoral immune response

Answer: Cell-mediated immune response

Graft rejection is classically a T-cell–mediated process, where recipient T cells recognize donor antigens and damage the transplanted kidney. This is the main mechanism of acute cellular rejection.

Q13. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by:

  1. B-lymphocytes
  2. Thrombocytes
  3. Erythrocytes
  4. T-lymphocytes

Answer: T-lymphocytes

Cell-mediated immunity is driven by T-lymphocytes, which recognize infected or abnormal cells and coordinate or directly execute immune responses. B-lymphocytes mainly produce antibodies, while thrombocytes and erythrocytes are not immune effector cells.

Q14. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body?

  1. Epithelium of urogenital tract
  2. Tears
  3. Monocytes
  4. Skin

Answer: Tears

Tears act as a physiological barrier because they continuously flush the eye surface and contain lysozyme, which can damage bacterial cell walls. This makes them an important first-line defense against microbial entry.

Q15. Diphtheria is caused by

  1. poisons released from dead bacterial cells into the host tissue
  2. poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissue
  3. excessive immune response by the host's body
  4. poisons released by virus into the host tissues

Answer: poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissue

Diphtheria symptoms are caused by an exotoxin produced and secreted by living Corynebacterium diphtheriae cells. This matches poisons released by living bacterial cells into host tissue, not toxins from dead cells or viruses.

Q16. Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?

  1. Coryza
  2. New castle disease
  3. Pasteurellosis
  4. Salmonellosis

Answer: New castle disease

Newcastle disease is caused by a virus and is a classic viral disease of poultry. Coryza, pasteurellosis, and salmonellosis are bacterial diseases, so they are not the correct choice.

Q17. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given:

  1. Penicillin
  2. Streptokinase
  3. Cyclosporin-A
  4. Statins

Answer: Streptokinase

Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve the clot causing the myocardial infarction, restoring blood flow quickly. Penicillin treats bacterial infections, cyclosporin-A is an immunosuppressant, and statins are used for cholesterol lowering and prevention, not immediate clot lysis.

Q18. Which one of the sexually transmitted diseases is correctly matched with its pathogen?

  1. Urethritis - Bacillus anthracis
  2. Syphilis - Treponema pallidum
  3. Gonorrhoea - Entamoeba histolytica
  4. Soft sore - Bacillus brevis

Answer: Syphilis - Treponema pallidum

Syphilis is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum, so that pair is correct. The other options are mismatched because their pathogens do not cause those sexually transmitted diseases.

Q19. African sleeping sickness is due to:

  1. Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tse tse fly
  2. Trypanosoma lewisi transmitted by Bed Bug
  3. Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis
  4. Entamoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly

Answer: Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis

African sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma gambiense, a protozoan transmitted by the tsetse fly (Glossina palpalis). The other options pair the wrong organism with the wrong vector or disease.

Q20. The causal organism for African sleeping sickness is:

  1. Trypanosoma cruzi
  2. T. rhodesiense
  3. T. rangela
  4. T. gambiense

Answer: T. gambiense

Trypanosoma gambiense is the classic cause of African sleeping sickness, especially the West African form. T. cruzi causes Chagas disease, while T. rhodesiense is associated with the East African form.

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