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The following statement (p→q)→[(~p→q)→q] is:

1. a fallacy
2. a tautology
3. equivalent to ~p→q
4. equivalent to p→~q

Correct answer: a tautology

Solution

The statement is a tautology because it holds true for all possible truth values of p and q, meaning that regardless of whether p is true or false, the overall expression evaluates to true.

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