Exams › JEE Advanced › Maths
Correct answer: 1
The expression is a Riemann sum with width pi/(2n) and sample points k*pi/(2n) for k=0,...,n-1. As n->infinity, it equals the integral of cos(x) from 0 to pi/2, which is [sin(x)] from 0 to pi/2 = 1 - 0 = 1.