IBPS PO 2024 — solved question paper

Q1. Statement: In December 2024, the Indian government announced measures to achieve a GDP growth target of 6.5% to 7% for the current fiscal year. This decision followed slower-than-expected growth in the July-September quarter, attributed to weaker manufacturing and consumption sectors. The government plans to boost infrastructure spending and increase incentives for electric vehicle manufacturers to stimulate economic growth. Conclusions: I. The Indian government is proactively addressing the economic slowdown by implementing strategic measures. II. Enhancing infrastructure spending is expected to positively impact India's GDP growth. III. The slowdown in the July-September quarter was solely due to external global factors. Which of the above conclusions logically follows from the statement?

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Only I and II

Answer: Only I and II

Conclusion I follows because the government is taking measures to address slower growth. Conclusion II follows because boosting infrastructure spending is presented as a stimulus measure. Conclusion III does not follow because the passage attributes the slowdown to weaker manufacturing and consumption, not solely external factors.

Q2. Statement: In June 2024, controversies arose over the NEET-UG exam due to alleged question paper leaks and irregularities in results. While the National Testing Agency (NTA) initially denied the claims, it later formed a committee to investigate. The Supreme Court ordered a re-examination for some candidates, highlighting the need for transparency. Based on the above statement, which of the following can be inferred? I. The integrity of the NEET-UG examination was questioned due to alleged irregularities. II. The NTA acknowledged the possibility of errors in the examination process. III. The Supreme Court mandated a complete cancellation of the NEET-UG examination.

1. Only inference 1 is correct
2. Only inference 2 is correct
3. Both inferences 2 and 3 are correct
4. Both inferences 1 and 2 are correct

Answer: Both inferences 1 and 2 are correct

Inference I follows because the statement clearly mentions alleged leaks and irregularities, which question the exam's integrity. Inference II also follows because forming a committee to investigate indicates that the NTA considered the possibility of issues in the process. Inference III is too strong because the statement mentions re-examination for some candidates, not complete cancellation.

Q3. In the question below, two statements are provided. Examine these statements carefully and determine whether there is a cause-and-effect relationship between them. Choose your answer from the options provided. Statements: I. The Election Commission of India reported a record voter turnout of 64.2 crore people in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections. II. The Election Commission implemented extensive voter awareness campaigns across the country in the lead-up to the 2024 general elections.

1. Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect.
2. Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect.
3. Both statements are independent causes.
4. Both statements are effects of a common cause.

Answer: Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect.

Voter awareness campaigns are a likely cause of higher voter participation, so Statement II can be seen as the cause. The record turnout in Statement I is the effect.

Q4. In September 2024, India’s first Vande Bharat Sleeper trainset, which was flagged off by Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw at the Bangalore rail complex, was indigenously designed and manufactured by which leading Indian rail and metro manufacturer?

1. Indian Railways
2. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
3. Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)
4. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)

Answer: Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)

The Vande Bharat Sleeper trainset was indigenously designed and manufactured by BEML. BEML is a major Indian PSU involved in rail and metro rolling stock production.

Q5. As of July 2024, the Indian Railways has made significant progress in implementing the Kavach system, which involves various activities to enhance train safety. According to the latest update, on how many route kilometres has the Kavach system been successfully deployed?

1. 1,220 Route km
2. 1,465 Route km
3. 1,750 Route km
4. 1,305 Route km

Answer: 1,305 Route km

Kavach is Indian Railways' indigenous train collision avoidance system. As of July 2024, it had been deployed on 1,305 route km, making that the correct figure.

Q6. As of March 2024, what was the Gross Merchandise Value (GMV) achieved by the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) during the financial year 2023–24 (FY24), reflecting a significant surge in public procurement?

1. ₹2.01 Lakh Crore
2. ₹3.5 Lakh Crore
3. ₹4 Lakh Crore
4. ₹4.5 Lakh Crore

Answer: ₹4.5 Lakh Crore

GeM reported a sharp rise in procurement during FY24. The GMV achieved was ₹4.5 lakh crore, which matches the latest reported figure in the question.

Q7. In July 2024, Meta announced the release of Llama 3.1, which is claimed to be the "world's largest and most capable openly available foundation model." How many parameters does the most capable version of Llama 3.1 have?

1. 700 billion
2. 100 billion
3. 405 billion
4. 200 billion

Answer: 405 billion

Meta's Llama 3.1 was announced in July 2024, and its most capable version has 405 billion parameters. This made it one of the largest openly available foundation models at the time.

Q8. As of October 2024, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) raised the position limit for trading members in index futures and options contracts to what amount, or 15% of the total open interest, whichever is higher?

1. ₹5,700 crore
2. ₹6,500 crore
3. ₹7,100 crore
4. ₹8,200 crore

Answer: ₹8,200 crore

SEBI increased the position limit for trading members in index futures and options to ₹8,200 crore or 15% of total open interest, whichever is higher. This was part of measures related to derivatives market risk management.

Q9. The 80th anniversary of the D-Day landings was marked on June 6, 2024, with veterans and world leaders gathering in Normandy. Normandy is located in which country?

1. Belgium
2. Germany
3. United Kingdom
4. France

Answer: France

Normandy is a region in France, and the D-Day commemorations were held there because the landings took place on its beaches during World War II. Hence, the correct answer is France.

Q10. As of January 2024, which country has remained on the FATF black list (high-risk jurisdictions) since February 2020, with no material changes reported in its action plan?

1. Iran
2. Afghanistan
3. North Korea
4. Syria

Answer: Iran

Iran has remained on the FATF black list since February 2020 due to unresolved deficiencies in its action plan. The question specifically mentions no material changes, which matches Iran's status.

Q11. In November 2024, India signed a Memorandum of Implementation (MoI) for the co-development of the UNICORN mast, a stealth-enhancing conical structure for naval warships, with which country?

1. South Korea
2. United States
3. Japan
4. Russia

Answer: Japan

India signed the MoI for co-development of the UNICORN mast with Japan in November 2024. The UNICORN mast is a stealth-enhancing structure used on naval warships.

Q12. As per the Finance Ministry's statement, what was the net profit of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) during the April-September period of the current fiscal year, showing a growth of 25.6% year-on-year?

1. ₹65,000 crore
2. ₹75,000 crore
3. ₹95,000 crore
4. ₹85,000 crore

Answer: ₹85,000 crore

The Finance Ministry reported that PSBs posted a net profit of ₹85,000 crore during April-September, reflecting 25.6% year-on-year growth. This is the correct figure among the options.

Q13. What is the primary objective of the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing or Misleading Environmental Claims, 2024, issued by the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)?

1. To promote the use of environmentally friendly products in industries.
2. To prevent false or exaggerated environmental claims.
3. To incentivize manufacturers for producing green products.
4. To set mandatory emission reduction targets for businesses.
5. To create a ranking system for green-certified companies.

Answer: To prevent false or exaggerated environmental claims.

The CCPA guidelines are meant to curb greenwashing, which refers to false, misleading, or exaggerated environmental claims. Their primary objective is consumer protection against deceptive sustainability marketing.

Q14. As per the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI), India ranked 176th out of 180 countries. Among the following, which country is not listed among the top 5 performing countries in the index?

1. Luxembourg
2. Estonia
3. Finland
4. United States
5. Denmark

Answer: United States

The 2024 Nature Conservation Index top performers include countries such as Luxembourg, Estonia, Finland, and Denmark. The United States is not among the top 5 listed in the index.

Q15. Why did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) impose business restrictions on four non-banking finance companies (NBFCs), including Aisvard Micro Finance Ltd and Navi Finserv Ltd, in October 2024?

1. Non-compliance with loan recovery practices
2. High levels of non-performing assets (NPAs)
3. Excessive interest rates and pricing policy violations
4. Failure to maintain adequate capital reserves
5. Violation of anti-money laundering guidelines

Answer: Excessive interest rates and pricing policy violations

RBI imposed restrictions because the NBFCs were found to have charged excessive interest rates and violated pricing-related norms. The action was a supervisory measure to protect borrowers and ensure fair lending practices.

Q16. As per the latest data available as of March 2024, which state in India has emerged as the leader in terms of the highest number of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), contributing over 17% to the country's total MSMEs?

1. Maharashtra
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Gujarat

Answer: Uttar Pradesh

Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of MSMEs in India and contributes over 17% to the country’s total MSME base. This makes it the leading state in terms of MSME count as of the given data.

Q17. What is the name of the winged vehicle used by ISRO in the third Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) Landing Experiment (LEX-03) conducted in June 2024?

1. Vikram
2. Pushpak
3. Gaganyaan
4. Shakti

Answer: Pushpak

ISRO’s winged reusable launch vehicle used in the LEX-03 landing experiment is named Pushpak. The experiment demonstrated autonomous landing capabilities for the RLV technology demonstrator.

Q18. As per a new report by the UN body World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), which of the following countries has filed the maximum number of GenAI patents?

1. China
2. South Korea
3. Thailand
4. Nepal

Answer: China

WIPO reports have identified China as the leading filer of GenAI patents. It has the highest number of such patent applications among the given options.

Q19. The Financial Inclusion Index captures information on various aspects of financial inclusion in a single value ranging between 0 and 100, where 0 represents complete financial exclusion and 100 indicates full financial inclusion. Which parameter brought the maximum increase in the FI Index in March 2024?

1. Quality Access
2. Usage
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Answer: Usage

The Financial Inclusion Index is built from three broad parameters: access, usage, and quality. In March 2024, the largest increase in the index came from the usage parameter, indicating improved utilization of financial services.

Q20. As per Union Budget 2024, it has been decided to remove the penalty of ₹10 lakh under Sections 42 and 43 of the Black Money Act, applicable till now, if you fail to report any foreign assets other than immovable property where the aggregate value does not exceed _____. This amendment will take effect from October 1, 2024.

1. ₹35 lakh
2. ₹30 lakh
3. ₹25 lakh
4. ₹20 lakh

Answer: ₹20 lakh

The Union Budget 2024 proposed relief from the penalty under the Black Money Act for certain foreign assets if their aggregate value does not exceed ₹20 lakh. This change is effective from October 1, 2024.

Q21. Nobel Prize awardee Peter Higgs passed away recently. He worked on the theory of the Higgs boson, also known as which particle?

1. God Particle
2. Bosons
3. Atom
4. Electron

Answer: God Particle

The Higgs boson is popularly called the "God Particle." Peter Higgs was associated with the theoretical prediction of this particle. The other options are not nicknames for the Higgs boson.

Q22. According to the 2024 Brands Report, which IT service brand was deemed the world's most valuable?

1. Accenture
2. TCS
3. Infosys
4. IBM Consulting

Answer: Accenture

The 2024 Brands Report identified Accenture as the world's most valuable IT services brand. It is widely recognized for consulting and technology services globally.

Q23. Which of the following correctly describes one of the key eligibility criteria for Small Finance Banks (SFBs) to transition into Universal Banks (UBs) under the on-tap licensing policy?

1. A minimum net worth of ₹1,500 crore and scheduled bank status with at least 3 years of operation.
2. A minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore, scheduled bank status, and a satisfactory performance track record of at least 5 years.
3. A minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore, with no requirement for scheduled bank status.
4. No minimum net worth requirement, but SFBs must have been in operation for 7 years with scheduled bank status.

Answer: A minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore, scheduled bank status, and a satisfactory performance track record of at least 5 years.

Under RBI's on-tap licensing framework, an SFB seeking conversion into a universal bank must satisfy specific eligibility norms. These include minimum net worth, scheduled bank status, and a satisfactory performance track record.

Q24. A recent study conducted by a French researcher in 2023 and 2024 has shed light on the remarkable expansion of the kids' clothing, toy, and merchandise industry. The research highlights that the compound annual growth rate in this sector is swelling to 20.1%, indicating a significant surge in consumer demand. If this upward trajectory continues, the entire industry is projected to reach a massive 32 billion valuation by 2030. One of the key drivers behind this growth is the increasing spending capacity of parents who are willing to invest in high-quality clothing, sustainable toys, and premium merchandise for their children. Modern parents are not only focusing on functionality but also on fashion, comfort, and safety. Many firms are capitalizing on this trend by introducing eco-friendly materials, innovative designs, and interactive toys that enhance learning. Additionally, the rise of e-commerce has provided ample space for emerging brands to establish themselves in this lucrative market. With digital platforms making shopping more convenient than ever, both established companies and new startups are well-positioned to cater to the growing demand. The study also revealed that social media plays a crucial role in influencing parents' purchasing decisions, with many brands leveraging influencer marketing and targeted advertisements to reach their audience effectively. Moreover, sustainability has become a focal point in this industry. Parents are now looking for biodegradable toys, organic clothing, and ethically sourced materials, pushing companies to adopt more responsible production practices. Firms that align with these values are seeing a surge in customer loyalty and brand reputation. While the research highlights promising growth, it also points out challenges such as fluctuating raw material prices and increasing competition. Companies that focus on innovation, sustainability, and customer engagement are likely to thrive in this rapidly expanding space. As the industry moves toward 2030, businesses that can adapt to evolving consumer preferences will be at the forefront of this booming market. Identify the incorrect statement(s) based on the passage: (I) The research predicts that if the current growth trend continues, the industry valuation will exceed 50 billion by 2030. (II) The expansion of e-commerce has enabled both new and established brands to cater to the increasing market demand. (III) Sustainability is a growing concern among consumers, which has prompted companies to adopt ethical production practices.

1. Only (I)
2. Both (I) and (II)
3. Only (III)
4. Both (II) and (III)

Answer: Only (I)

Statement (I) is incorrect because the passage says the industry is projected to reach 32 billion by 2030, not more than 50 billion. Statements (II) and (III) are supported by the passage: e-commerce helps both established and new brands, and sustainability is driving ethical production practices.

Q25. Which of the following countries did not join BRICS as a new full member during the 16th BRICS Summit in Russia?

1. Egypt
2. Ethiopia
3. Iraq
4. Saudi Arabia

Answer: Iraq

During BRICS expansion, Egypt, Ethiopia, and Saudi Arabia were among the countries that joined as new full members. Iraq was not included in the expansion, so it is the correct answer.

Q26. Recently (July 2024), two MLAs from the Jharkhand State Assembly were disqualified under the anti-defection law under which schedule of the Indian Constitution?

1. 10th
2. 9th
3. 8th
4. 7th

Answer: 10th

The anti-defection law is provided under the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Therefore, disqualification of MLAs under this law falls under the 10th schedule.

Q27. S&P Global projects a decrease in Indian banks' non-performing assets (NPAs) to what percentage by the end of Fiscal Year 2023–24 and a further reduction to 3.5% by the end of Fiscal Year 2024–25?

1. 2.5
2. 3.75
3. 3.9
4. 4.5

Answer: 4.5

S&P Global’s projection states that Indian banks' NPAs are expected to fall to 4.5% by the end of FY 2023–24, and then further to 3.5% by FY 2024–25. Hence, the correct option is 4.5.

Q28. What is the new maximum loan amount under the Tarun category of Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) as announced in the Union Budget 2024-25?

1. ₹15 lakh
2. ₹18 lakh
3. ₹20 lakh
4. ₹25 lakh

Answer: ₹20 lakh

In Union Budget 2024-25, the maximum loan amount under the Tarun category of PMMY was increased. The revised limit is ₹20 lakh, replacing the earlier lower ceiling.

Q29. In the latest Union Budget, what is the amount of the standard deduction allowed for salaried individuals?

1. ₹75,000
2. ₹60,000
3. ₹50,000
4. ₹80,000

Answer: ₹75,000

The latest Union Budget increased the standard deduction for salaried individuals to ₹75,000. This is the amount allowed as a flat deduction from salary income under the revised tax regime provisions.

Q30. As per the recent Monetary Policy Committee meeting of August 2024, the limit for UPI tax payments was increased from ₹1 lakh to:

1. ₹10 lakh
2. ₹5 lakh
3. ₹15 lakh
4. ₹3 lakh

Answer: ₹5 lakh

In the August 2024 RBI MPC meeting, the UPI limit for tax payments was enhanced from ₹1 lakh to ₹5 lakh. This was a specific relaxation for tax-related transactions, not for all UPI payments.

Q31. In the context of the recent SEBI circular in March 2024 regarding the simplification and streamlining of offer documents for mutual fund schemes, what does the 'S' stand for in SID?

1. Security
2. Savings
3. Scheme
4. Systematic

Answer: Scheme

In mutual fund terminology, SID stands for Scheme Information Document. Hence, the 'S' refers to 'Scheme'. This aligns with SEBI's documentation framework for mutual fund schemes.

Q32. What is the proposed new transaction limit for tax payments through UPI as per the recent RBI statement?

1. ₹1 lakh
2. ₹2 lakh
3. ₹3 lakh
4. ₹5 lakh

Answer: ₹5 lakh

The RBI proposed increasing the transaction limit for tax payments through UPI to ₹5 lakh. This is a policy move aimed at enabling larger tax-related digital payments. Hence, the correct answer is ₹5 lakh.

Q33. Read the passage and answer the question: While social media has revolutionized global communication, it has also raised serious alarms across nations. What began as a platform for connection and free expression has, in many instances, become a breeding ground for misinformation, cyberbullying, and hate speech. According to DataReportal's 2024 Global Digital Report, over 5.04 billion people worldwide now use the internet, with 4.80 billion active on social media. Countries like India, Brazil, and the Philippines have seen the highest year-on-year growth in user engagement. However, this increase has also led to a surge in harmful online behavior. One of the most disturbing trends is the proliferation of hate speech through social platforms. From racist slurs to targeted harassment of minorities, social media has enabled hate to spread faster than ever before. Algorithms often promote controversial or divisive content because it drives engagement, indirectly encouraging inflammatory posts. Studies show that hate-based tweets are 70% more likely to be retweeted than neutral ones. In response, several countries have introduced legislation to counter this wave of digital toxicity. Germany's Network Enforcement Act (NetzDG), enacted in 2017, is considered a benchmark policy. It requires platforms like Facebook, YouTube, and Twitter to remove 'obviously illegal' content within 24 hours of notification, or face heavy fines. These platforms must also maintain internal records of user complaints and content takedown actions for transparency and future audits. Country X, recognizing the growing online hostility within its borders, is now adopting a similar model to Germany's NetzDG. By mandating rapid content takedown, establishing grievance redressal mechanisms, and enforcing penalties for non-compliance, Country X hopes to curb the unchecked spread of hate speech on social media. It has also put in place digital compliance protocols to track violations and ensure swift corrective action. While such steps are commendable, experts stress that technology alone cannot solve the problem. Promoting digital literacy, encouraging ethical online behavior, and holding platforms accountable are all essential to making social media a safer space. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about hate-based tweets?

1. They are immediately flagged and removed by AI tools.
2. They tend to remain unnoticed by users.
3. They are less likely to be shared than neutral tweets.
4. They are significantly more likely to be reshared than neutral content.

Answer: They are significantly more likely to be reshared than neutral content.

The passage explicitly states that hate-based tweets are 70% more likely to be retweeted than neutral ones. This supports the inference that they are more likely to be reshared than neutral content.

Q34. According to the Economic Survey 2023–24, which of the following areas saw a sharp rise?

1. Exports of agricultural products
2. Food Inflation
3. Durable Goods
4. Unemployment rate

Answer: Food Inflation

The Economic Survey 2023–24 noted a sharp rise in food inflation. This was a major concern because food prices significantly affect overall inflation and household budgets.

Q35. At the Republic Day Parade in Delhi, the tableau of Uttar Pradesh will showcase which of the following?

1. Ram temple in Ayodhya
2. Kaksaar dance
3. Bhortal Nritya
4. Startup India

Answer: Ram temple in Ayodhya

The Uttar Pradesh tableau at the Republic Day Parade in Delhi showcased the Ram temple in Ayodhya. Hence, the correct answer is Ram temple in Ayodhya.

Q36. The Aditya-L1 spacecraft took how many days to complete its first halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1 point after its launch on September 2, 2023?

1. 158 days
2. 168 days
3. 188 days
4. 178 days

Answer: 178 days

Aditya-L1 completed its first halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1 point in 178 days after launch. This was widely reported in current affairs related to India’s solar mission.

Q37. ISRO has announced the launch of a spacecraft to orbit Venus, scheduled for which of the following?

1. December 2023
2. December 2024
3. September 2023
4. August 2024

Answer: December 2024

ISRO announced the Venus mission, Shukrayaan-1, with a planned launch window in December 2024. Hence, the correct answer is December 2024.

Q38. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) recently came out with new guidelines to enhance safety in the transportation of dangerous, hazardous goods posing a threat to public safety, property, and the environment. BIS works under the aegis of which of the following ministries?

1. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
2. NITI Aayog
3. Ministry of Home Affairs
4. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution

Answer: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution

The Bureau of Indian Standards is the national standards body of India and functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. This ministry oversees consumer protection and standardization-related matters.

Q39. Which port in India achieved the highest cargo throughput in FY 2023–24, surpassing Deendayal Port (Kandla)?

1. Mumbai Port
2. Paradip Port
3. Chennai Port
4. Jawaharlal Nehru Port

Answer: Paradip Port

Paradip Port recorded the highest cargo throughput in FY 2023–24, overtaking Deendayal Port. It is one of India’s major ports on the eastern coast and handles substantial bulk cargo.

Q40. As per the Horticulture 2nd Advance Estimate 2023–24, which of the following commodities are ranked in decreasing order of production?

1. Plantation > Fruits > Vegetables > Spices > Flowers
2. Vegetables > Fruits > Plantation > Spices > Flowers
3. Spices > Fruits > Vegetables > Plantation > Flowers
4. Fruits > Vegetables > Spices > Plantation > Flowers

Answer: Vegetables > Fruits > Plantation > Spices > Flowers

According to the Horticulture 2nd Advance Estimate 2023–24, vegetables have the highest production among the listed commodities, followed by fruits, plantation crops, spices, and flowers. So the decreasing order is vegetables > fruits > plantation > spices > flowers.

Q41. Find the synonym of the word "skew" used in the passage.

1. distribute
2. distortion
3. aligned
4. different

Answer: distortion

In the passage, "skewed in favour of the latter" means biased or distorted toward one side. Among the options, "distortion" is the closest synonym in this context.

Q42. The presidencies of the 2023, 2024, and 2025 UN Climate Change Conferences have formed the COP Presidencies Troika and launched the 'Roadmap to Mission 1.5°C' to significantly enhance international cooperation and the international enabling environment to stimulate ambition in the next round of nationally determined contributions. Which of the following countries are part of this troika?

1. France, Azerbaijan, and Germany
2. United Arab Emirates (UAE), Azerbaijan, and Brazil
3. United States of America (USA), Azerbaijan, and Brazil
4. United Arab Emirates (UAE), India, and Brazil

Answer: United Arab Emirates (UAE), Azerbaijan, and Brazil

The COP Presidencies Troika consists of the presidencies of COP28, COP29, and COP30. These are UAE, Azerbaijan, and Brazil respectively. Hence, the correct option is UAE, Azerbaijan, and Brazil.

Q43. Which of the following countries was not elected to the UN Security Council as a non-permanent member for the 2024–2025 term?

1. Pakistan
2. Somalia
3. Panama
4. Italy

Answer: Italy

Pakistan, Somalia, and Panama were elected as non-permanent members for the 2024–2025 term. Italy was not elected for that term, so it is the correct choice.

Q44. A recent study conducted by a French researcher in 2023 and 2024 has shed light on the remarkable expansion of the kids' clothing, toy, and merchandise industry. The research highlights that the Compound Annual Growth rate in this sector is swelling to 20.1%, indicating a significant surge in consumer demand. If this upward trajectory continues, the entire industry is projected to reach a massive $32 billion valuation by 2030. One of the key drivers behind this growth is the increasing spending capacity of parents who are willing to invest in high-quality clothing, sustainable toys, and premium merchandise for their children. Modern parents are not only focusing on functionality but also on fashion, comfort, and safety. Many firms are capitalizing on this trend by introducing eco-friendly materials, innovative designs, and interactive toys that enhance learning. Additionally, the rise of e-commerce has provided ample space for emerging brands to establish themselves in this lucrative market. With digital platforms making shopping more convenient than ever, both established companies and new startups are well-positioned to cater to the growing demand. The study also revealed that social media plays a crucial role in influencing parents' purchasing decisions, with many brands leveraging influencer marketing and targeted advertisements to reach their audience effectively. Moreover, sustainability has become a focal point in this industry. Parents are now looking for biodegradable toys, organic clothing, and ethically sourced materials, pushing companies to adopt more responsible production practices. Firms that align with these values are seeing a surge in customer loyalty and brand reputation. While the research highlights promising growth, it also points out challenges such as fluctuating raw material prices and increasing competition. Companies that focus on innovation, sustainability, and customer engagement are likely to thrive in this rapidly expanding space. As the industry moves toward 2030, businesses that can adapt to evolving consumer preferences will be at the forefront of this booming market. Find the word similar in meaning to "space" as used in the passage.

1. Distance
2. Void
3. Area
4. Vacancy

Answer: Area

In the passage, 'space' is used in the sense of an available area or scope for emerging brands to establish themselves. Among the options, 'area' is the closest contextual synonym.

Q45. Which of the following countries was not among the top 5 performers in the World Economic Forum’s Travel & Tourism Development Index (TTDI) 2024?

1. USA
2. South Korea
3. Australia
4. France

Answer: South Korea

The TTDI 2024 top performers included countries such as the USA, Spain, Japan, France, and Australia. South Korea was not in the top five.

Q46. In April 2024, the Government of India released 'CDP-Suraksha' under the Cluster Development Scheme. Which of the following are objectives or features of the Cluster Development Programme? 1. Dovetailing of resources 2. Enhancing farmers' income through cluster-specific interventions 3. Facilitating the introduction of innovative technologies and practices to help enhance the global competitiveness of focus cluster crops

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

The Cluster Development Programme aims to pool resources, improve farmers' income through targeted interventions, and promote innovative technologies and practices. These features are consistent with the objectives of CDP-Suraksha.

Q47. Find the word similar in meaning to "swell" as used in the passage.

1. Huge
2. Multiply
3. Expand
4. Minimize

Answer: Expand

In the passage, 'swell' is used to describe the growth of the industry. In this context, it means 'expand'.

Q48. How many medals did India win in arm wrestling at the Asian Championship 2024 held in Tashkent, Uzbekistan?

1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 7

Answer: 7

India performed strongly in arm wrestling at the Asian Championship 2024 in Tashkent and won 7 medals in total. This is a current affairs fact-based question.

Q49. The Government has announced the 'Transit Oriented Development Plans' for 14 large cities with population above _______ in Union Budget 2024–25.

1. 40 lakhs
2. 15 lakhs
3. 30 lakhs
4. 20 lakhs

Answer: 30 lakhs

In Union Budget 2024–25, Transit Oriented Development Plans were announced for 14 large cities with a population above 30 lakhs. This was part of the urban development focus.

Q50. Which state is ranked as the most preferred to work in India among the youth according to the India Skills Report 2024?

1. Karnataka
2. Maharashtra
3. Kerala
4. Tamil Nadu

Answer: Kerala

According to the India Skills Report 2024, Kerala is ranked as the most preferred state to work in among the youth. This is a current affairs-based factual question.

Q51. In which sport did India not participate in the recently held Paris Olympics?

1. Archery
2. Pole Vault
3. Swimming
4. Football

Answer: Pole Vault

Pole vault is a specific athletics event, and India did not have participation in it in the Paris Olympics. The other options are sports/events in which India did participate.

Q52. According to recent newspaper reports, the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has set the target of 550 GW of energy from non-fossil fuels to be achieved by which year?

1. 2022
2. 2025
3. 2030
4. 2050

Answer: 2030

India has announced a major non-fossil fuel capacity target of 550 GW to be achieved by 2030. This is part of the broader renewable energy transition and climate commitments. Hence, the correct year is 2030.

Q53. What is the budget allocation for the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare in the 2024–25 Budget?

1. ₹85,000.27 crore
2. ₹1,05,009.76 crore
3. ₹1,10,004.66 crore
4. ₹1,32,469.86 crore

Answer: ₹1,32,469.86 crore

The 2024–25 Union Budget allocated ₹1,32,469.86 crore to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. This reflects the government’s continued emphasis on agriculture and farmer support. Therefore, the correct option is ₹1,32,469.86 crore.

Q54. Which organization released the Global Risks Report 2024?

1. United Nations
2. World Health Organization
3. World Economic Forum
4. International Monetary Fund

Answer: World Economic Forum

The Global Risks Report is published annually by the World Economic Forum. It is one of the WEF’s flagship publications and discusses major risks facing the world over the short and long term.

Q55. A recent study conducted by a French researcher in 2023 and 2024 has shed light on the remarkable expansion of the kids' clothing, toy, and merchandise industry. The research highlights that the compound annual growth rate in this sector is swelling to 20.1%, indicating a significant surge in consumer demand. If this upward trajectory continues, the entire industry is projected to reach a massive $32 billion valuation by 2030. One of the key drivers behind this growth is the increasing spending capacity of parents who are willing to invest in high-quality clothing, sustainable toys, and premium merchandise for their children. Modern parents are not only focusing on functionality but also on fashion, comfort, and safety. Many firms are capitalizing on this trend by introducing eco-friendly materials, innovative designs, and interactive toys that enhance learning. Additionally, the rise of e-commerce has provided ample space for emerging brands to establish themselves in this lucrative market. With digital platforms making shopping more convenient than ever, both established companies and new startups are well-positioned to cater to the growing demand. The study also revealed that social media plays a crucial role in influencing parents' purchasing decisions, with many brands leveraging influencer marketing and targeted advertisements to reach their audience effectively. Moreover, sustainability has become a focal point in this industry. Parents are now looking for biodegradable toys, organic clothing, and ethically sourced materials, pushing companies to adopt more responsible production practices. Firms that align with these values are seeing a surge in customer loyalty and brand reputation. While the research highlights promising growth, it also points out challenges such as fluctuating raw material prices and increasing competition. Companies that focus on innovation, sustainability, and customer engagement are likely to thrive in this rapidly expanding space. As the industry moves toward 2030, businesses that can adapt to evolving consumer preferences will be at the forefront of this booming market. Which of the following challenges does the passage highlight as potential obstacles for companies in this industry?

1. Lack of innovation and brand awareness among emerging companies.
2. High advertising costs and reduced consumer interest in sustainability.
3. Fluctuating raw material prices and rising competition in the market.
4. Government-imposed restrictions on e-commerce and digital marketing.

Answer: Fluctuating raw material prices and rising competition in the market.

The passage directly states that companies face challenges such as fluctuating raw material prices and increasing competition. These are the obstacles highlighted as potential threats to growth. The other options are not mentioned in the passage.

Q56. How is the inflationary trend over 2024 and 2025 expected to be driven, according to the passage?

1. Primarily by the manufacturing sector, due to increased production costs.
2. By a significant increase in energy prices, contributing to higher overall inflation rates.
3. Predominantly by the services sector, with wage growth expected to maintain inflation at elevated levels.
4. Through decreased consumer spending, leading to lower demand and thus lower inflation.

Answer: Predominantly by the services sector, with wage growth expected to maintain inflation at elevated levels.

The passage clearly states that inflation in 2024 and 2025 is expected to be driven predominantly by the services sector. It also mentions that wage growth in services will keep inflation elevated, while energy price contributions remain nominal.

Q57. In October 2024 FIDE ratings (Open section), who held the top ranking with two Indians in the top 5?

1. Fabiano Caruana
2. Magnus Carlsen
3. D Gukesh
4. Arjun Erigaisi

Answer: Magnus Carlsen

In the October 2024 FIDE World Chess Rankings, Magnus Carlsen of Norway held the #1 position. Indian players D Gukesh and Arjun Erigaisi were both ranked in the top 5, marking a historic milestone for Indian chess.

Q58. According to Union Budget 2024-25, what is the venture capital fund allocation for space sector?

1. ₹500 crores
2. ₹750 crores
3. ₹1,000 crores
4. ₹2,000 crores

Answer: ₹1,000 crores

In Union Budget 2024-25, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a ₹1,000 crore venture capital fund to boost the space economy and support space startups.

Q59. Under Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, maximum fine for service provider is?

1. One crore
2. Two crore
3. Three crore
4. Four crore

Answer: One crore

The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 was passed to curb paper leaks and cheating in government exams. Service providers (e.g., paper setters, exam centres) can face fines up to ₹1 crore and 3-10 years of imprisonment.