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SSC CGL (Prelims) General: Polity questions with solutions

23 questions with worked solutions.

Questions

Q1. Anglo-Indian nomination in State Assemblies was terminated by:

  1. Governor's ongoing nomination power
  2. 42nd Amendment
  3. 104th Amendment
  4. Proportional representation election

Answer: 104th Amendment

The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 ended the nomination of Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. It also extended the reservation for SC/ST in legislatures for another period. Therefore, the correct answer is 104th Amendment.

Q2. The abrogation of Article 370's special status for Jammu and Kashmir occurred via:

  1. Presidential Order under Article 370(3)
  2. Parliamentary amendment under Article 368
  3. Presidential Ordinance
  4. Article 356 Order

Answer: Presidential Order under Article 370(3)

The special status of Jammu and Kashmir was removed through a Presidential Order issued under Article 370(3), along with related constitutional and parliamentary steps. Among the given options, this is the correct constitutional mechanism.

Q3. Consider the following statements: 1. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha. 2. The Governor can recommend President’s Rule in a state. Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Both 1 and 2

The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha under constitutional provisions. The Governor can send a report or recommend President’s Rule in a state, which may lead to Article 356 action.

Q4. As per Article 368, the Constitution of India can be amended by:

  1. Simple majority
  2. Two-thirds majority in Parliament
  3. Unanimous vote of states
  4. President’s ordinance

Answer: Two-thirds majority in Parliament

Article 368 provides the procedure for amending the Constitution. Constitutional amendments generally require a special majority in Parliament, which includes a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, along with other conditions depending on the provision.

Q5. Read the statements below: 1. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India. 2. The security deposit for contesting the Vice-President election is ₹15,000. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only statement 1
  2. Only statement 2
  3. Both statements 1 and 2
  4. Neither statement 1 nor 2

Answer: Both statements 1 and 2

The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President under Article 76. The security deposit for the Vice-President election is ₹15,000, so both statements are correct.

Q6. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

  1. 101st Amendment
  2. 97th Amendment
  3. 86th Amendment
  4. 44th Amendment

Answer: 101st Amendment

The Goods and Services Tax was introduced through the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. It created the constitutional basis for GST in India.

Q7. Which Article deals with the Election Commission of India?

  1. Article 280
  2. Article 324
  3. Article 356
  4. Article 370

Answer: Article 324

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution provides for the Election Commission of India and vests in it the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. The other articles listed deal with different constitutional matters.

Q8. Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the:

  1. 42nd Amendment
  2. 44th Amendment
  3. 52nd Amendment
  4. 61st Amendment

Answer: 42nd Amendment

Fundamental Duties were inserted into the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. This amendment added Part IVA containing Article 51A.

Q9. Assertion (A): Digital India promotes e-governance. Reason (R): It aims to improve online infrastructure.

  1. Both A and R are true and R explains A
  2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true

Answer: Both A and R are true and R explains A

Digital India is designed to expand digital access and strengthen online public services, so the assertion is true. Improving online infrastructure directly supports e-governance, so the reason is also true and explains the assertion.

Q10. Arrange the following in chronological order: 1. Inter-State Council constituted 2. Sarkaria Commission constituted 3. First meeting of the Inter-State Council held. Choose the correct chronological sequence.

  1. 2 - 1 - 3
  2. 1 - 2 - 3
  3. 2 - 3 - 1
  4. 1 - 3 - 2

Answer: 2 - 1 - 3

The Sarkaria Commission was constituted first, followed by the constitution of the Inter-State Council, and then its first meeting. Therefore, the correct chronological order is 2 - 1 - 3.

Q11. Consider the following statements about the Lok Sabha: 1. It can be dissolved before completion of its term. 2. Its maximum strength is fixed at 552 members.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Both 1 and 2

The Lok Sabha is not a permanent body and can be dissolved before its term ends, so statement 1 is correct. Its maximum strength is 552 members, including up to 530 from states, 20 from union territories, and 2 nominated members, so statement 2 is also correct.

Q12. Fill in the blank: The Vice-Chairperson of the NITI Aayog is appointed by the ________ of India.

  1. Prime Minister
  2. President
  3. Chief Justice
  4. Parliament

Answer: Prime Minister

The Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister of India. NITI Aayog is an executive policy think tank, and its appointments are made within the government structure.

Q13. The Punchhi Commission on Centre-State relations was set up in:

  1. 2000
  2. 2005
  3. 2007
  4. 2010

Answer: 2007

The Punchhi Commission on Centre-State relations was constituted in 2007 under the chairmanship of M. M. Punchhi. It examined issues related to federal relations in India.

Q14. Fill in the blank: The Supreme Court of India commenced its functioning in the year _____.

  1. 1949
  2. 1950
  3. 1952
  4. 1956

Answer: 1950

The Supreme Court of India commenced functioning on 28 January 1950. This was shortly after the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950. Therefore, 1950 is correct.

Q15. Who presides over a joint sitting of Parliament in India?

  1. President
  2. Vice President
  3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. Chief Justice of India

Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha

A joint sitting of Parliament is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. If the Speaker is absent, the Deputy Speaker or another person may preside as per parliamentary procedure.

Q16. Consider the following statements: 1. Article 14 guarantees equality before law. 2. Article 19 provides certain fundamental freedoms. 3. Article 32 deals with amendment of the Constitution. Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Article 14 guarantees equality before law, and Article 19 provides certain fundamental freedoms. Article 32 deals with constitutional remedies, so statement 3 is incorrect.

Q17. The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) primarily aims to:

  1. Replace criminal laws
  2. Abolish parliamentary democracy
  3. Establish uniform laws on civil matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance
  4. Regulate foreign trade

Answer: Establish uniform laws on civil matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance

The Uniform Civil Code refers to a common set of civil laws for all citizens, especially in matters such as marriage, divorce, adoption, and inheritance. It is a constitutional directive under Article 44.

Q18. Which All-India Service is allotted to state cadres but controlled jointly by the Centre and the states?

  1. IAS
  2. DSC
  3. State PCS
  4. Indian Post

Answer: IAS

The Indian Administrative Service (IAS) is an All-India Service. Its officers are allocated to state cadres, but the service is controlled by the Union government in consultation with the states.

Q19. Under which Article can the President promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session, and how long do they last?

  1. Article 123; until Parliament reconvenes or 6 weeks thereafter
  2. Article 213; until next session of state legislature
  3. Article 356; during emergency
  4. Article 352; during national emergency

Answer: Article 123; until Parliament reconvenes or 6 weeks thereafter

Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session. An ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles, unless it is approved earlier.

Q20. Which Article provides the President with the power to declare a Financial Emergency?

  1. Article 352
  2. Article 356
  3. Article 360
  4. Article 365

Answer: Article 360

Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency. Articles 352 and 356 deal with National Emergency and President's Rule, respectively.

Q21. Who was the Solicitor General of India in 2024, who was re-appointed in 2023?

  1. Ranjit Kumar
  2. Mukul Rohatgi
  3. Tushar Mehta
  4. K.K. Venugopal

Answer: Tushar Mehta

Tushar Mehta served as the Solicitor General of India and was re-appointed in 2023, continuing in the role in 2024. The other options are associated with different legal offices or earlier tenures.

Q22. Per Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), the total permissible police custody duration, including periodic extensions by a magistrate, is:

  1. 30 days
  2. 60 days
  3. 90 days
  4. 15 days (initial, extendable)

Answer: 15 days (initial, extendable)

Under BNSS, police custody is generally limited to 15 days, though it may be granted in installments within the permissible legal framework. The other options refer to broader custody or remand periods, not police custody specifically.

Q23. The removal of Jammu and Kashmir's special status under Article 370 was carried out through which of the following?

  1. A Presidential Order issued under Article 370(3)
  2. A Parliamentary amendment under Article 368
  3. A Presidential Ordinance
  4. An Order under Article 356

Answer: A Presidential Order issued under Article 370(3)

The special status of Jammu and Kashmir was removed through a Presidential Order issued under Article 370(3), along with related parliamentary resolutions and legislation. The constitutional route was not a simple amendment under Article 368.

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