NEET Biology: Reproductive Health questions with solutions

Q1. What is the function of copper-T?

1. Stops zygote formation
2. Checks mutation
3. stops obliteration of blastocoels
4. stops fertilization

Answer: stops fertilization

Copper-T is an intrauterine device that releases copper ions, which impair sperm motility and fertilizing capacity. By preventing the sperm from fertilizing the egg, it acts as a contraceptive.

Q2. If ovaries from a pregnant woman are removed in \( 4^{t h} \) month of pregnency, then

1. Development of embryo becomes abnormal
2. Abortion occurs after some time
3. Embryo develops normally till birth
4. None of the above

Answer: Embryo develops normally till birth

By the fourth month, the placenta is producing enough progesterone and estrogen to maintain the pregnancy even if the ovaries are removed. Therefore, the embryo can continue developing normally until birth.

Q3. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter: (i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe (ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years (iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives (iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception Which two of the above statements are correct?

1. ii and iii
2. iii and iv
3. i and iii
4. i and ii

Answer: i and iii

Statement (i) is correct because MTP is generally safer in the first trimester. Statement (iii) is also correct because copper-T and similar IUDs are effective contraceptives. The other two are incorrect: breastfeeding does not guarantee nil conception for two years, and contraceptive pills are not used one week after coitus to prevent pregnancy.

Q4. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:

1. who cannot produce an ovum
2. who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus.
3. whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
4. who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation

Answer: who cannot produce an ovum

In gamete intrafallopian transfer, eggs and sperm are placed into the fallopian tube, where fertilization can occur naturally. It is therefore used when the woman cannot ovulate or produce an ovum, but her tubes are otherwise functional.

Q5. Test tube baby is one who

1. is born out of artificial insemination
2. has undergone development in a test tube
3. is born out of the technique of fertilization in vitro
4. has been developed without fertilization

Answer: is born out of the technique of fertilization in vitro

A “test tube baby” is produced by in vitro fertilization, where the egg and sperm unite outside the body and the embryo is then transferred to the uterus. It does not mean the baby develops in a test tube or that fertilization is absent.

Q6. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

1. GIFT and ZIFT
2. ICSI and ZIFT
3. GIFT and ICSI
4. ZIFT and IUI

Answer: ICSI and ZIFT

ZIFT transfers a zygote/early embryo into the fallopian tube, and ICSI is an assisted fertilization technique used when natural fertilization is difficult. Both are used to help infertile females conceive, unlike GIFT or IUI which do not transfer embryos.

Q7. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?

1. Mutational breeding
2. Cross breeding
3. Inbreeding
4. Out crossing

Answer: Cross breeding

Hisardale was developed by mating Bikaneri ewes with Marino rams, which is the definition of cross breeding. This method combines desirable traits from two different breeds into a new breed.

Q8. Select the incorrect statement.

1. Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
2. Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines in any animal.
3. Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity.
4. Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of undesirable genes.

Answer: Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity.

Inbreeding increases homozygosity and can help fix desirable traits, but it also exposes harmful recessive alleles, often causing inbreeding depression. The incorrect statement is the one claiming inbreeding 'selects' harmful recessive genes, because it mainly reveals them rather than favoring them.

Q9. Select the incorrect statement regarding inbreeding.

1. Inbreeding depression cannot be overcome by out-crossing.
2. Inbreeding helps in elimination of deleterious alleles from the population.
3. Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a pure line in any animal.
4. Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and leads to inbreeding depression.

Answer: Inbreeding depression cannot be overcome by out-crossing.

The incorrect statement is the one claiming inbreeding depression cannot be overcome by out-crossing. In reality, out-crossing often restores heterozygosity and can reduce or reverse inbreeding depression.

Q10. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal husbandry because it:

1. is useful in producing purelines of animals.
2. is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression.
3. exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
4. helps in accumulation of superior genes.

Answer: is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression.

Outbreeding introduces unrelated genes, which increases heterozygosity and helps restore fitness lost due to inbreeding depression. It is not mainly for making pure lines or accumulating superior genes.

Q11. Budding is a normal mode of asexual reproduction in:

1. starfish and Hydra
2. hydra and sponges
3. tapeworm and Hydra
4. sponge and starfish

Answer: hydra and sponges

Budding is a common asexual reproduction method in Hydra and many sponges, where a small outgrowth develops on the parent and later separates. Starfish and tapeworm do not normally reproduce by budding in this way.

Q12. Progesterone, the component of the oral contraceptive pills, prevents pregnancy by

1. preventing the cleavage of the fertilized egg
2. preventing the formation of ova
3. blocking ovulation
4. creating unfavourable chemical environment for the sperms to survive in the female reproductive tract

Answer: blocking ovulation

Progesterone in oral contraceptive pills provides negative feedback on the pituitary, suppressing FSH and especially the LH surge needed for ovulation. Without ovulation, no egg is available for fertilization, so pregnancy cannot begin.

Q13. A candidate vaccine for male contraception is based on

1. follicle stimulating hormone
2. progesterone
3. testosterone
4. luteinizing hormone

Answer: testosterone

Testosterone is central to normal sperm production and male reproductive function. A vaccine approach targeting testosterone-related pathways can lower fertility by disrupting this hormonal support.

Q14. The most important component of the oral contraceptive pill is

1. growth hormone
2. thyroxine
3. luteinizing hormone
4. progesterone

Answer: progesterone

Progesterone (usually given as a synthetic progestin) is the key hormone in oral contraceptive pills because it inhibits ovulation and thickens cervical mucus. This makes fertilization and implantation less likely.

Q15. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?

1. Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
2. Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
3. Embryo of 32 cell stage
4. Zygote only

Answer: Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage

In IVF-related tubal transfer, the material placed into the fallopian tube must be at a very early developmental stage so it can continue development and reach the uterus naturally. That is why either a zygote or an early embryo up to the 8-cell stage is transferred.

Q16. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

1. Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
2. AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
3. Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
4. Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

Answer: Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and genital herpes are all sexually transmitted infections. The other options include diseases that are not STDs, such as malaria, filaria, and cancer.

Q17. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

1. Vaults, LNG-20
2. Multiload 375, Progestasert
3. Progestasert, LNG-20
4. Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

Answer: Progestasert, LNG-20

Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone-releasing intrauterine devices: Progestasert releases progesterone, and LNG-20 releases levonorgestrel. The other listed devices are non-hormonal IUDs.

Q18. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?

1. Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
2. Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
3. CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
4. Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods

Answer: Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives

Lactational amenorrhea involves prolactin-related suppression of ovulation, so hormones play a role. Oral pills and emergency contraceptives are hormonal methods, while barrier methods and CuT do not rely on hormones.

Q19. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

1. blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
2. increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
3. is a post-coital contraceptive.
4. is an IUD.

Answer: blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

Saheli (centchroman/ormeloxifene) is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive that blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, making implantation unlikely. It does not work by increasing estrogen, is not a post-coital pill, and is not an IUD.

Q20. Which of the following is a correct statement?

1. IUDs suppress gametogenesis.
2. IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.
3. IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
4. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.

Answer: IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.

IUDs do not suppress gamete formation or get inserted by the user; they are placed by a healthcare professional. Their contraceptive effect includes increasing uterine phagocytosis of sperms, which reduces the chance of fertilization.