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Suppose f(x) = 3 2 2 1 x x ) 1 x 3 x 7 ( ) 1 x x ( tan x tan ) 2 2 ( + + + − + − − . Then the vale of f ′ (0) is equal to-

1. 2 π
2. π
3. 0
4. π

Correct answer: π

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