IBPS PO Reasoning: Reasoning Ability questions with solutions

Q1. Targeted delivery of government subsidies and benefits ensures that they reach the poor and the deserving. What would be the cause of the above government budget?

1. Some portion is still untouched from new subsidies and other scheme.
2. Some urban sector can get subsidy scheme profit.
3. DBT ensures related information about the poor people for subsidies.
4. The transparency and clearance will be increased.

Answer: The transparency and clearance will be increased.

The statement describes direct benefit transfer (DBT), which aims to deliver subsidies directly to the intended beneficiaries. A key result of such a system is greater transparency and reduced leakage, making option D the best fit.

Q2. Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow. In the given figure, the four line segments 1, 2, 3 and 4 are RA, SB, TC and UD respectively. The lengths of the lines are 39 m, 25 m, 27 m and 49 m respectively. Six people Mohan, Sohan, Rohan, Ankit, Vinit and Sumit are standing in line RA. All of them are facing north. The distance between them increases in multiples of 7 from the left end (i.e., if Mohan is at the left end of the line at point R, then the remaining people will stand at distances of 7 m, 14 m, 21 m, and so on from the end). Mohan is standing at the left end of the line. Two persons are standing between Mohan and Sohan. Rohan stands second to the left of Sohan. Sumit is an immediate neighbour of Rohan. Only one person stands between Sumit and Ankit. Similarly, six people Anita, Ambika, Amrita, Aanchal, Arpita and Ajita are standing in line UD. All of them are facing south. The distance between them increases in multiples of 9 from the right end (i.e., if the first person is at the right end of the line at point U, then the remaining people will stand at distances of 9 m, 18 m, 27 m, and so on from point U). Amrita is standing at the 3rd position from the right end. Arpita is an immediate neighbour of Amrita. Two people are standing between Arpita and Ajita. More than three persons stand between Ajita and Anita. Aanchal stands immediately to the left of Ajita. Ambika and Arpita are immediate neighbours. Point S and point T are the left ends of the rows in lines SB and TC.

1. 14m
2. 16m
3. 22m
4. 24m

Answer: 24m

The arrangement in line RA fixes the positions of Mohan, Sohan, Rohan, Sumit, and Ankit, while the arrangement in line UD fixes the positions of Amrita, Arpita, Ajita, Aanchal, Ambika, and Anita. Using the given spacing pattern and the endpoint references, the required distance evaluates to 24 m.

Q3. What can be the code for ‘Create style’ ?

1. 2#68% 7841%
2. 26%8% 7814%
3. 26%8% 7841%
4. 26%6% 7841%

Answer: 26%8% 7841%

This is a coding-decoding question where each word is transformed into a fixed pattern of digits and symbols. Among the options, only one maintains a consistent and plausible encoding for both words. Therefore, that option is the correct code.

Q4. Directions (31–33): Read the questions carefully and answer the following. More than 10 persons were sitting in a circular row facing the centre. B is 3rd to the left of C. Two persons are sitting between D and B. A sits immediate right of E. One person is sitting between C and E. Less than two persons are sitting between D and A. A does not sit second to the right of B. How many persons are sitting in the circular arrangement?

1. 14
2. 11
3. 12
4. 13

Answer: 13

The given relations among B, C, D, A, and E can be arranged only when the circle has 13 persons. Smaller counts fail to satisfy all spacing conditions simultaneously. Thus, 13 is the valid total.

Q5. Six boxes A, B, C, D, E, F of different colours are placed one above another. Also, each box has a different number of toffees. No box has the same number of toffees. Only two boxes are placed between B and the green box. No box is placed above B. Box D is placed immediately above the blue box. Only the red box is placed between the green box and A. Only one box is placed between the red and blue boxes. Only one box is placed between D and E. Only one box is placed between the orange box and C. C is not red. How many toffees does the blue box have? (I) E has more than 8 toffees, while C has more than 20 toffees. D has 21 toffees. The boxes with the lowest and second-lowest numbers of toffees have 10 and 12 toffees respectively. A, C, D and F have odd numbers of toffees. (II) A has more toffees than B but not more than D. The difference between the numbers of toffees in F and E is 7. The box with the highest number of toffees has 8 more toffees than F. The total number of toffees in B and A is 31.

1. (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient.
2. (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient.
3. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. (d) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

The arrangement clues determine the relative positions and colours of the boxes, but not the exact toffee count of the blue box. Statement I gives partial numerical constraints, and statement II gives another set of constraints; each alone is insufficient. Together, they uniquely determine the blue box’s toffee count, so both are necessary.

Q6. Directions (36–40): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: Seven persons are sitting in a straight line. Four of them are facing south and the remaining three are facing north. They like different fruits: apple, banana, grapes, guava, kiwi, mango and orange, but not necessarily in the same order. They are also sitting in alphabetical order from the left end. The person who likes grapes sits second to the left of P. Two persons sit between the one who likes grapes and the one who likes banana. The immediate neighbours of the one who likes banana face opposite directions. Q likes kiwi. The one who likes mango sits second to the right of Q. Only one person sits between R and the one who likes guava. The persons who like banana and apple are immediate neighbours. The one who likes orange sits third to the right of the person who likes mango. Q and R face opposite directions. The one who likes banana faces south. The person who likes guava faces north. Who among the following is sitting in the row?

1. X
2. V
3. O
4. U
5. M

Answer: U

This is a complex linear arrangement puzzle with directions and fruit preferences. By placing the fruits using the positional clues and then matching the people in alphabetical order from the left, the arrangement leads to U as the required person. The direction constraints help eliminate the other options.

Q7. What will be the third step of the given input?

1. Step III-42 jvsu qnrw 96 zegm 146 9 bdgv
2. Step III- jvsu 42 qnrw 96 zegm 146 bdgv 9
3. Step III- jvsu 42 qnrw zegm 96 146 9 bdgv
4. Step III- jvsu 42 qnrw 96 zegm 146 9 bdgv

Answer: Step III- jvsu 42 qnrw 96 zegm 146 9 bdgv

This is an input-output arrangement question where elements are rearranged step by step according to a rule. The third step matches the sequence shown in option D, with the words and numbers placed in the correct transformed order. Hence, that is the required step.

Q8. Married couples are not working in the same city. They have different designations, i.e. GM, AGM, CEO, Manager, Assistant Manager, PO, Clerk, and Sub staff, in decreasing order of seniority, where GM is the senior-most and Sub staff is the junior-most. Only three persons are senior to the only son of B. B does not work in Pune. E is the sister-in-law of G, who is the junior-most person. H is the son-in-law of D, who is the immediate senior of A. F is the spouse of C, and both are not working in Delhi. There are as many posts above the father-in-law of A as below the sibling of A. Only C and H are working in Hyderabad. Only PO and Sub staff are working in Delhi. The spouse of E is not working in Delhi. G is the daughter-in-law of B, who is the spouse of D. F is senior to H and junior to C. How many persons are junior to H?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Two
4. Five

Answer: Five

The clues determine a unique seniority order among the eight persons. H is placed such that five persons are below him in the hierarchy. Therefore, the number of persons junior to H is five.

Q9. Directions (1): Each question consists of two conclusions followed by some statements. Consider the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the following statements is true for the given conclusions. Q1. Conclusions: I. All number can never be digit. II. Some digit being letter is a possibility. A) Statements: All series is number; Some series is digit; Only a few letter is number B) Statements: Only a few series is digit; All series is number; Some letter is number C) Statements: No digit is series; No series is number; All number is letter D) Statements: Only digit is letter; Some digit is number; Only a few series is number

1. Statements: All series is number; Some series is digit; Only a few letter is number
2. Statements: Only a few series is digit; All series is number; Some letter is number
3. Statements: No digit is series; No series is number; All number is letter
4. Statements: Only digit is letter; Some digit is number; Only a few series is number

Answer: Statements: Only digit is letter; Some digit is number; Only a few series is number

The correct statement set must satisfy the conclusions: no number can be digit, and some digit-letter overlap must remain possible. Option D supports this by allowing some digit to be number and only a few series to be number, while also keeping digit-letter relation valid. Hence, option D is the best fit.

Q10. Directions (2–6): A word/number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers; it arranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of the input and its arrangement: Input: triangle 45 38 galaxy 93 puzzle 27 velocity rhythm 84 Step I: 88 triangle 45 38 puzzle 27 velocity rhythm 84 aaglxy Step II: 87 88 triangle 45 38 27 velocity rhythm aaglxy eulpzz Step III: 40 87 88 triangle 38 27 velocity aaglxy eulpzz hhmrty Step IV: 41 40 87 88 27 velocity aaglxy eulpzz hhmrty aeigl nrt Step V: 22 41 40 87 88 aaglxy eulpzz hhmrty aeigl nrt eiocl tvy Based on the above example, rearrange the following input: Input: shadow 74 19 magnet 52 forest 68 bridge whistle 31 Which element is 5th to the right of the second least number in Step V?

1. eibdgr
2. 31
3. eofrst
4. aegmnt
5. None of these

Answer: None of these

This is a stepwise arrangement puzzle where each step moves one number and one word according to a hidden rule. After completing Step V for the given input, the element 5th to the right of the second least number does not match any listed option. Hence, the correct response is "None of these".

Q11. Five bags of different colours, namely grey, brown, cyan, orange and golden, are placed one above another on different shelves, but not necessarily in the same order. The bottommost shelf is numbered 1, just above it is numbered 2, and so on till the topmost shelf, numbered 5. Which bag is placed immediately below the grey-coloured bag?

1. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements II and III are not sufficient to answer the question
2. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and III are not sufficient to answer the question
3. Statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
4. Any two of the given statements are necessary to answer the question

Answer: Statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

Statement III alone is enough because it places the grey bag on a prime-numbered shelf and also fixes its position two shelves below cyan, which leads to a unique arrangement and hence the bag immediately below grey can be determined. Statements I and II do not uniquely determine the arrangement on their own.

Q12. Six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F, sit around an equilateral triangle table such that three persons sit at the corners and face inside, while three persons sit in the middle of each side and face outside, but not necessarily in the same order. Who sits immediate right of D?

1. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements II and III are not sufficient to answer the question
2. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and III are not sufficient to answer the question
3. Statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
4. Any two of the given statements are necessary to answer the question

Answer: Any two of the given statements are necessary to answer the question

Each statement alone leaves more than one possible seating arrangement, so the person to the immediate right of D cannot be determined uniquely. However, any two statements together are sufficient to fix the arrangement and identify the required person.

Q13. If we use the following alphabets from the words given in the options below: the second consonant from the left end in the first word, the last vowel from the right end in the second word, the consonant which is first from the right end in the third word, and the vowel which is second from the left end in the fourth word, then which of the following options gives a meaningful word?

1. Game, Mate, King, Fire
2. Land, Rust, Well, Tube
3. Wish, Fish, Cost, Lane
4. Nice, Gain, Word, Meet

Answer: Nice, Gain, Word, Meet

Applying the letter-selection rules to the words in the correct option yields letters that form a meaningful word. The other options do not produce a valid word after applying the same rules.

Q14. In the word ASSUMPTION, vowels are replaced with their immediately succeeding letter and consonants are replaced with their immediately preceding letter. In the word METICULOUS, the letters that come after N are changed to their immediately succeeding letter and the letters that come before R are changed to their immediately preceding letter. Then both the words are combined, the second word is arranged after the first word, repeated letters are removed after combining both words. Which letter is sixth from the right end?

1. O
2. D
3. S
4. J

Answer: J

The two words are first modified according to the given rules, then concatenated with the second word after the first. After removing repeated letters, the resulting sequence has a definite sixth letter from the right, which is J.

Q15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on a group. Which among the following does not belong to that group? (a) Ayush (b) Gopi (c) Kumar (d) Ram (e) Kunal

1. Ayush
2. Gopi
3. Kumar
4. Ram

Answer: Ram

Ayush, Gopi, Kumar, and Kunal can be grouped by a naming pattern used in the set, while Ram is the odd one out. Hence Ram does not belong to the group.

Q16. Directions (6-10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions. A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangements. Input: stadium language lunatic ambition condition consonant Step I: stadium lunatic language consonant condition ambition Step II: tstadium munatid manguagf donsanuu conditioo mbition Step III: abdittu adimntu aafggmnu adnnnosou ddiinooot bbiimoot Step IV: bejouvv bejnouv bbgghnov beoooppvt eejjoppu ccjjnppu Step V: bghhnov bejnouv bejouuv beoooppvt ccjjnppu eejjoppu Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. Based on the following logic, rearrange the given input. Input: dangerous duplicate murder cannot survive triangle In which step will 'efostv' appear before the final step? A) Step III B) Step II C) Step IV D) Step I

1. Step III
2. Step II
3. Step IV
4. Step I

Answer: Step IV

The machine first rearranges the words, then transforms each word according to a fixed letter-shift and sorting rule. By applying the same pattern to the new input, the string 'efostv' is generated in the penultimate transformation stage. Therefore, it appears in Step IV.

Q17. What will be the last step of the given input?

1. bdfgjmquv befhsva beoovp bffhopsuv bfostv gjsuvvw
2. befgjmquv befhsva beoovp bffhopsuv efostv gjsuvvw
3. cdfgjmquv befhsva beoovp bffhopsuv efostv gjsuvvw
4. bdfgjmquv beoovp bffhopsuv bghjmosv efostv gjsuvvw
5. None of these

Answer: None of these

This is an input-output arrangement problem where the final step must match the machine’s transformation rule. None of the listed arrangements matches the correct final configuration for the given input, so the answer is "None of these."

Q18. Eight members A, B, M, N, O, P, Q and R are living in a family in which there are only two married couples. Which of the following statements is sufficient to determine the family relations?

1. A is the sister-in-law of P, who is the mother-in-law of A, who is unmarried. B is the father of N. Q is not the wife of N. N, who is married, is not the sibling of M.
2. A is married to B. N is the father of O. M is the father of M. M is the sibling of N.
3. A is the sister-in-law of P, who is the mother-in-law of A, who is unmarried. B is the father of N. Q is not the wife of N. N, who is married, is not the sibling of M.
4. A is married to B. N is the father of O. M is the father of M. M is the sibling of N.

Answer: A is married to B. N is the father of O. M is the father of M. M is the sibling of N.

The sufficient statement is the one that gives direct relationship links needed to form the family structure. Option B provides marriage and parent/sibling relations, making it the most usable base for determining the family tree.

Q19. In a certain code language, how is "utility" coded in the given code language?

1. N12
2. E23
3. L14
4. Q17

Answer: L14

The word "utility" appears in the phrase "man utility source," which is coded as "E23 L14 Q17." Since "source" is also present in another coded phrase with code Q17, the remaining code for "utility" is L14. This matches the consistent one-to-one coding pattern.

Q20. Directions (26-29): Read the following information carefully and answer the question. Eleven houses A, B, C, D, E, F, P, Q, R, S, and T are located in a straight row such that the opening gates of some houses open in the north direction and some open in the south direction, but not necessarily in the same order. No two adjacent houses with opening gates are in the same direction. House B is not located near house A. House Q is located immediately to the left of house B. House P is located fourth to the right of house D, which is located immediately to the left of house R. The number of houses to the left of house P is one more than the number of houses between house R and house P. Only two houses are located to the left of house A. The number of houses between house P and house A is one less than the number of houses between house T and house C. House T is located near house P. One house is located between house F and house Q, and the gates of both houses do not open in the south direction. Only one house is located between house E and house S, and house S is not located near house C. House D is second from one of the ends. Which of the following pairs of houses are the immediate neighbors of house P?

1. House D and House F
2. House T and House F
3. House S and House T
4. House D and House A

Answer: House T and House F

This is a linear arrangement puzzle with directional clues. By using the fixed positions of D, P, A, and the relative constraints involving Q, B, T, and F, the arrangement leads to P having T and F as immediate neighbors.

Q21. Directions (30): Read the following information carefully and answer the question. If (i) A & B means A is 5 m west of B. (ii) A % B means A is 4 m south of B. (iii) A * B means A is 6 m north of B. (iv) A @ B means A is 4 m east of B. In the expression F & G, B & A % C & D & E * F @ H, in which direction is point A from point G?

1. West
2. North-West
3. East
4. North-East

Answer: North-West

Each symbol represents a fixed direction and distance. By converting the expression into coordinate movements, point A ends up northwest of point G. Hence, the direction from G to A is North-West.

Q22. Directions (31-32): Read the following information carefully and answer the question. If (i) P & Q means P is the brother of Q. (ii) P % Q means P is the father of Q. (iii) P * Q means P is the sister of Q. (iv) P @ Q means P is the son of Q. (v) P $ Q means P is the daughter of Q. (vi) P ? Q means P is the mother of Q. In the expression Q & G, G & A % C & D ? F * @ H @ R, how is F related to A?

1. Son
2. Grandson
3. Granddaughter
4. Either (b) or (c)

Answer: Either (b) or (c)

The coded chain establishes that F is an ancestor of the person linked to A, but the gender of F is not uniquely determined. Therefore, F can be either a grandson or a granddaughter in relation to A, depending on the interpretation of the chain.

Q23. Statement: "In a big relief to liquor companies which are holding their stocks worth more than Rs. 200 crore in Bihar, the Supreme Court on Monday granted them two more months to transport liquor out of the state and directed them to dispose of their stocks by July 31." Which of the following can be the presupposition of the given statement? I. Beverages companies contended that it was possible to destroy the existing stocks by the end of this month. II. The apex court had earlier fixed a deadline of May 31 for the companies to dispose of their stocks. III. Seeking more time for transporting the stocks out of the state, the confederation said in its petition that delay in disposing of stocks was beyond its control as clearances were required from various agencies.

1. Only I
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and III
4. All of the above
5. None of the above

Answer: Only II and III

The statement assumes that there was already an earlier deadline and that the companies had sought more time due to clearance issues. Statement I is not necessary for the given news report and is not presupposed. Therefore, only II and III fit.

Q24. Statement: The government has made quoting of Aadhaar mandatory for opening bank accounts as well as for any financial transaction of 50,000 and above. Which of the following statements can be concluded from the given statement? I. The government in its Budget 2017 has already mandated seeding of Aadhaar number with Permanent Account Number (PAN) to avoid individuals using multiple PANs to evade taxes. II. Aadhaar is more secure and reliable than PAN for bank account transactions. III. Aadhaar number is issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI).

1. All except II
2. Both II and III
3. Only I
4. Only I and II
5. None of the above

Answer: Only I

The given statement supports the idea that Aadhaar is being used for financial identification, which aligns with the seeding of Aadhaar with PAN to prevent misuse. However, it does not compare Aadhaar with PAN in terms of security, nor does it state who issues Aadhaar. Hence, only I can be concluded.

Q25. Directions (36-39): Study the following information carefully and answer the given question. Eight persons A, B, C, D, P, Q, R, and S are sitting around two inscribed square tables such that four persons are sitting at the four corners of each inner square and outer square. Persons sitting at the inner square and outer square are facing each other. C faces the one who sits 2nd to the right of S. Q is neither an immediate neighbor of S nor C. D faces R and is an immediate neighbor of Q. A sits immediately to the left of R. B faces P. Both B and C are not immediate neighbors. Neither P nor A faces outside. Who among the following sits 3rd to the left of the one who faces D?

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. P
5. None of these

Answer: None of these

The clues allow a unique arrangement of the eight persons around the two squares. After identifying the person facing D and moving three places to the left, the resulting person is not among A, B, C, or P.

Q26. Seven persons S, E, V, B, A, D and U sit in a row facing north, and they all work in a company with different working experiences of 15 years, 7 years, 2 years, 23 years, 19 years, 6 years and 12 years. The information is not necessarily in the same order as given. The persons with vowel names have an even number of years of experience and neither sit at the ends nor exactly in the middle of the row. Three persons sit between S and the one having 23 years of experience. One person sits between S and A. The number of persons to the right of A is the same as the number of persons to the left of the one having experience 2.5 times that of A. The one with 2.5 times A’s experience neither has the highest experience nor sits adjacent to S. The person having the least experience sits second to the left of D. U does not have the least experience. The neighbors of B have more experience than B. What is the experience of V?

1. 23 years
2. 19 years
3. 15 years
4. 7 years

Answer: 7 years

The clues about vowel names, S and the 23-year person, and the relative positions of A and the 2.5-times experience allow a unique seating and experience assignment. After placing the least-experienced person second to the left of D and using the neighbor condition for B, V is left with 7 years. Hence, V’s experience is 7 years.

Q27. A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of the input and rearrangement: Input: 84629 57426 76932 27483 49853 62434 Step I: 273 84629 57426 76932 49853 62434 Step II: 53 273 84629 57426 76932 62434 Step III: 572 53 273 84629 76932 62434 Step IV: 23 572 53 273 84629 76932 Step V: 732 23 572 53 273 84629 Step VI: 2 732 23 572 53 273 Step VI is the last step of the given arrangement. Based on the given logic, rearrange the given input: Input: 63825 49857 38679 72548 45328 95763 What is the smallest number in the penultimate step of the given input?

1. 32
2. 37
3. 57
4. 325

Answer: 32

The machine rearranges the numbers step by step according to a consistent rule, moving one transformed number to the front in each step. For the given input, the arrangement reaches its penultimate stage with a set of numbers whose smallest value is 32. Therefore, 32 is the correct answer.

Q28. Nine persons work in three departments, i.e., operations, finance and marketing, of a company. On their meeting day, they wear different colored shirts: white, blue, green, orange, red, black, purple, pink and violet. The information is not necessarily in the same order as given. The persons in operations do not wear orange or black. T works only with the one wearing green but not in marketing. R wears white and works with G but not in marketing. Only the persons wearing red and black work together in the same department. B works with E and neither of them wears black. A does not work in operations but wears violet. M neither works in finance nor with the one wearing red. The one wearing purple does not work in finance. G and D do not wear red or orange. H does not work with E, who does not wear blue or orange. Which of the given combinations is correct?

1. A - marketing
2. M - blue
3. White - operations
4. T - finance

Answer: T - finance

The clues create fixed department pairs and eliminate several color-department combinations. After placing R with white and using the restrictions on T, M, A, and the red-black pair, T is forced into finance. Hence, the correct combination is T - finance.

Q29. If M and the one wearing purple interchange their departments with E and G, then which persons, along with their shirt colors, will work in the operations department?

1. G - pink, E - blue
2. D - green, G - pink
3. G - blue, E - pink
4. E - orange, M - red

Answer: G - blue, E - pink

The question asks for the new department assignment after swapping the departments of M and the purple-shirted person with E and G. Once the swap is applied to the original arrangement, G and E are the persons who end up in operations, with blue and pink shirts respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is G - blue, E - pink.

Q30. In the following symbols, the meanings are as given: 1 % 2 means 2 is neither smaller nor greater than 1. 1 & 2 means 2 is neither greater than nor equal to 1. 1 * 2 means 2 is neither smaller than nor equal to 1. 1 < 2 means 2 is not greater than 1. 1 @ 2 means 2 is not smaller than 1. Statements: U < L % K % T; W & P; D * J; W % R < L; M * T < J Conclusions: I. M * W II. D & K III. J < P Which of the following is correct?

1. Both I and III are true
2. None is true
3. Only II is true
4. Only I is true

Answer: None is true

After converting the symbols, the statements do not support any of the three conclusions with certainty. Each conclusion either contradicts the derived relations or cannot be established definitively. Therefore, none of the conclusions is true.

Q31. Statements: W * R ¤ P; L % M R & S; W H % Q Conclusions: I. M H II. L * Q III. P & S Which of the following is correct?

1. Both II and III are true
2. Only I is true
3. Either I or II is true
4. None is true
5. Only III is true

Answer: None is true

The symbol set implies specific inequalities, but the given statements do not force any of the conclusions to be true. Each conclusion fails either because the relation is opposite or because the data is insufficient. Hence, none of the conclusions is true.

Q32. Statements: P * D C % B A; H T & Y % D; K * U a W % P Conclusions: I. D & U II. B * T III. H & K Which of the following is correct?

1. Both I and II are true
2. Only III is true
3. Both II and III are true
4. All are true
5. None of these

Answer: None of these

The statements provide partial inequality chains, but they do not establish all three conclusions with certainty. Some relations are missing or do not connect the required variables directly. Therefore, none of the given combinations is correct.

Q33. Directions (23–25): Each of the following questions consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give the answer. Q23. Six persons Q, R, T, W, X and Y go to the market on different consecutive days starting from Thursday. Who among the following goes just after T? Statement I. Q goes two persons before R, who does not go last. The number of persons before T is the same as the number of persons after Y. Statement II. W does not go before Y. Y goes two persons after R. One person goes between X and W, and W goes after Sunday. Statement III. T goes before the one who goes two persons after Q. Y and W go one after another but not on Thursday.

1. If the data in statement I is sufficient
2. If the data in statement II is sufficient
3. If the data in statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data in all the statements I, II and III are necessary to answer the question.
5. If the data in statement III is sufficient

Answer: If the data in all the statements I, II and III are necessary to answer the question.

Statement I gives partial placement information but does not uniquely determine who follows T. Statement II also leaves more than one valid arrangement. Statement III alone is insufficient as well. Only by using all three statements together can the exact order be fixed, so all are necessary.

Q34. Q24. In a family of three generations, there are eight members. How many married couples are there in the family? Statement I. R is the son of P. S is the sibling of R and has only one son. V is the grandson of Q. Statement II. U has no siblings. W is the daughter-in-law of U. P is the sibling of T. Statement III. Q is the sister-in-law of T and has no siblings. U is the brother-in-law of R.

1. If the data in statement I is sufficient
2. If the data in statement II is sufficient
3. If the data in statement II and statement III are sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data in all the statements I, II and III are necessary to answer the question.
5. If the data in statement III is sufficient

Answer: If the data in all the statements I, II and III are necessary to answer the question.

Each statement provides only part of the family structure. Statement I identifies some parent-child links, Statement II adds sibling and in-law relations, and Statement III connects the remaining members through marriage relations. Only by combining all three can the number of married couples be determined.

Q35. Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the question. Twenty-one persons have different designations, namely CEO, MD, DGM, AGM, Manager and Clerk, in a bank. The order of seniority is the same as given above, i.e., CEO is the senior-most designation and Clerk is the junior-most designation. The number of persons working at any position is one more than the number at the next senior post. For example, if three persons work as AGM, then four persons work as Manager, and so on. P, T and W work at the same post. S is senior to W. X is senior to U, who is not designated as AGM. R and V work at the same post. Neither B nor H works as Manager, but both work at the same post. D, E and H work at the same post junior to Q and T. Q is junior to U. The number of posts senior to Q and T is the same. X is junior to R. A, L and M work at the same post. W does not work as Manager. R is neither Manager nor Clerk. Z and Y are senior to G and O. How many persons are senior to V?

1. Three
2. Five
3. Four
4. Six

Answer: Six

The designation counts follow a 1-2-3-4-5-6 pattern across CEO to Clerk, totaling 21 persons. Using the seniority and same-post clues, V is placed at a level with six persons senior to him/her in the overall order. Therefore, six persons are senior to V.

Q36. Directions (6-9): Study the following information carefully and answer the question. In a certain code language: “All tree Pass here” is coded as “@* ^# + ^#? ^#+” “Boys toss equal bowl” is coded as “^#? &&@* ^#? ^#*” “We are true people” is coded as “!#* @+ ^#+ %#+” “Vowel groups side there” is coded as “&+# %#? ^#+ &#+” What is the code for “Press”?

1. &#?
2. &@?
3. #+
4. &@+
5. None of these

Answer: None of these

The given codes allow matching only the words that appear in the sample sentences. Since 'Press' does not appear in any of the coded statements, its code cannot be uniquely determined from the data, so the correct choice is 'None of these'.

Q37. Directions (12–14): Study the following information carefully to answer the given question. Two buses P and Q start their journey from a bus depot to different destinations. Bus P starts 12 km south of the depot and reaches point 1. Then it turns left and travels 13 km to reach point 2. Then it turns right and travels 14 km to reach point 3. After that it turns left and travels 18 km to reach point 4. Then bus P turns left and travels 9 km to reach the final stop 5. Bus Q travels 16 km east of the depot to reach point 6. Then it turns right and travels 11 km to reach point 7. Then it turns left and travels 22 km to reach point 8. Then it turns left and travels 14 km to reach point 9. Finally, it turns left and travels 39 km to reach point 10. These stops are assigned names according to the following conditions: - If the distance between two consecutive points is a prime number, then the first stop is called ‘A’. - If the stops (points) are in the north-west and south-east of the bus depot, then these points are called ‘B’. - If the stops (points) are in the north-east of the bus depot, then these points are called ‘C’. - If the distance between two consecutive points is an even number, then the first stop is called ‘D’. Q12. Find the odd one out. (a) Distance between stop 2 and stop 4 (b) Distance between stop 7 and stop 9 (c) Distance between stop 3 and bus depot (d) Distance between stop 8 and stop 9 (e) Distance between stop 6 and bus depot

1. Distance between stop 2 and stop 4
2. Distance between stop 7 and stop 9
3. Distance between stop 3 and bus depot
4. Distance between stop 8 and stop 9

Answer: Distance between stop 8 and stop 9

After plotting the movements, the distances in most options match the intended pattern from the arrangement. The pair involving stop 8 and stop 9 stands out as the odd one out based on the computed relation. Hence, that option is correct.

Q38. Directions (15–18): Study the following information carefully to answer the given question. Ten persons — M, N, O, P, Q, T, U, V, W and X — sit around a circular table, but not necessarily in the same order. Five of them face inside and the rest face outside. No two consecutive alphabetical named persons sit adjacent to each other. Not more than two neighbours face the same direction. Two persons sit between W and N. M sits 3rd to the right of N. Immediate neighbours of M face opposite directions to each other. X and V sit immediately to the left of each other but are not immediate neighbours of N. O and P sit 2nd to the right of each other. Immediate neighbours of U face the same direction but not the same as U. No one sits between O and X on either side. W and Q face the same direction. X does not face outside. The number of persons sitting between N and W when counted to the left of W is the same as the number of persons sitting between ____ and ____ when counted to the left of ____. (a) X, T (b) Q, U (c) U, O (d) V, Q

1. X, T
2. Q, U
3. U, O
4. V, Q

Answer: Q, U

After arranging the persons according to the given conditions, the gap between N and W when counted to the left of W matches the gap between Q and U when counted to the left of U. Therefore, the correct option is Q and U.

Q39. Q19. Statement: The current active wet spell over the two states A and B, the largest producer of wheat, brought cheers to farmers, especially wheat growers. Which of the following can be the reason for the happiness of wheat growers from the given statement? (I) The rain will help in improving photosynthesis, resulting in better growth of the crop, which will result in improved yield. (II) The minimum temperature has also come down, which is good for wheat crop as it thrives in cold conditions. (III) Rain will help in reducing pressure on groundwater and would also help in retaining soil moisture. (IV) Both states A and B are the biggest crop producers and are completely dependent on farming as an occupation, so adequate rain at the right time is a matter of joy for them. (a) Only I and II are implicit (b) Only III is implicit (c) Only III and IV are implicit (d) All are implicit (e) Only I, II and III are implicit

1. Only I and II are implicit
2. Only III is implicit
3. Only III and IV are implicit
4. Only I, II and III are implicit

Answer: Only I, II and III are implicit

Statements I, II, and III directly explain why the wet spell benefits wheat growers: better crop growth, favorable temperature, and improved soil moisture. Statement IV adds an unsupported generalization about the states’ occupation pattern, so it is not implicit. Hence, only I, II, and III are implicit.

Q40. Q20. Statement: All state governments have been asked to create awareness about the testing and prevention of the widely spread swine flu and also to ensure that there are enough beds and medicines to treat any cases of this contagious disease. Which of the following can be assumed from the given statement? (I) H1N1 influenza (or swine flu) is a highly contagious acute respiratory disease of pigs. (II) Swine flu viruses do not normally infect humans. (III) Even though it is a contagious disease, treatment of swine flu is possible. (a) Only I and II are implicit (b) Only III is implicit (c) Only III and I are implicit (d) All are implicit (e) None of the above

1. Only I and II are implicit
2. Only III is implicit
3. Only III and I are implicit
4. None of the above

Answer: Only III is implicit

The statement clearly implies that swine flu cases can be treated, since it mentions beds and medicines for treatment. It does not state that swine flu is a disease of pigs or that it does not infect humans normally. Therefore, only III is implicit.

Q41. Q27. Nine persons of different heights are arranged in descending order according to their height. Who among the following is the 3rd tallest? Statement I: Two persons are between Q and R. P is shorter than S but not just shorter. The number of persons between R and S is the same as the number of persons between Q and R. T and U are not shorter than S. More than two persons are between P and U. T is taller than R. Statement II: Only two persons are shorter than Q. One person is between Q and V. No one is between V and R. The number of persons between R and Q is the same as the number of persons taller than T. U is taller than T and shorter than S. (a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient (b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient (c) If the data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer (d) If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient (e) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient
2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient
3. If the data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer
4. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient

Answer: If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient

Statement I alone does not uniquely determine the 3rd tallest person, and statement II alone also leaves ambiguity. Even when both statements are combined, more than one arrangement can satisfy the conditions, so the answer cannot be uniquely determined. Therefore, the data are not sufficient.

Q42. Q28. Eight balls are thrown on the floor and are now at some distance and direction from each other. In which direction is ball R with respect to ball O? Statement I: Ball R is 15 m west of ball P. Ball M is 6 m south of ball R. Ball T is 12 m north of ball Q. Statement II: Ball S is 15 m south of ball P. Ball O is 6 m south of ball N. Ball T is 18 m west of ball O. Ball N is 9 m east of ball S. (a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient (b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient (c) If the data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer (d) If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient (e) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient
2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient
3. If the data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer
4. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient

Answer: If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient

Statement I places R relative to P, but gives no link to O. Statement II places O relative to N and T relative to O, but gives no link to R. Even together, the statements do not uniquely determine the direction of R with respect to O.

Q43. Directions (29–31): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: 'P@Q' means 'P is the son of Q' 'P^Q' means 'P is the father of Q' 'P+Q' means 'P is the brother of Q' 'P+Q' means 'P is the daughter of Q' 'P-Q' means 'P is the mother of Q' 'P=Q' means 'P is the sister of Q' 'P%Q' means 'P is the husband of Q' Q29. Which of the following means 'A is the daughter of B'? (a) A@B (b) A^B (c) A+B (d) A+ B

1. A@B
2. A^B
3. A+B
4. A+ B

Answer: A+ B

The coding list contains a repeated symbol line with the intended meaning for daughter. Among the options, the one matching the daughter relation is A+ B. Therefore, that is the correct answer.

Q44. Directions (1–4): Read the given information carefully and answer the question based on it. There is a matrix with 4 rows (I, II, III and IV) from top to bottom and 4 columns (I, II, III and IV) from left to right. A meaningful word will be formed only when we go left to right in a row and top to bottom in a column. Conditions: • No letters are repeated more than twice. • Alphabets are coded as A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5, F-1, G-2, H-3, I-4, ..., Y-5, Z-1. • The place values of the column and row are added to get the cell value of a particular row or column. • If a column/row has one letter, then the entire column/row should not have that letter. For example, if row 1 and column 1 have the letter M, then that letter should not be repeated in the entire row 1 and column 1. A 4-letter meaningful word has to be formed in each column: In column I: positions I, II, III, IV contain the letters V, A, T respectively. In column II: positions III, IV contain the letters H, O respectively. In column III: position II contains the letter R. In column IV: positions I, II, IV contain the letters N, T, S respectively. Which alphabet will come in (III, III) to make the meaningful word in row III and column III?

1. U
2. I
3. O
4. R

Answer: O

The clues indicate that each row and column must form meaningful 4-letter words under the given placement rules. By matching the fixed letters in column III and ensuring row III also forms a valid word, the missing letter at (III, III) is O.

Q45. Directions (5): The question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III. Decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Q5. What is the code of "town"? I. "town is clean" is coded as "mp wy hz", "small area city" is coded as "rt mh ap" and "town is good" is coded as "hz aw wy". II. "town is authentic" is coded as "wy ap hz", "every city worth" is coded as "mt rt ng" and "no best city" is coded as "ax nr rt". III. "town is best" is coded as "wy nf hz", "best small city" is coded as "rt sk ax" and "level in city" is coded as "wr rt uc".

1. If data in statement I alone is sufficient
2. If data in statement III alone is sufficient
3. If data either in statement I alone or in statement III alone is sufficient
4. If data in all statements i.e., I, II and III even together is not sufficient
5. If data in all statements i.e., I, II and III together is sufficient

Answer: If data in all statements i.e., I, II and III together is sufficient

Each statement gives overlapping coded words, but no single statement alone is enough to uniquely fix the code of "town". Taken together, the repeated code patterns across all three statements allow the code for "town" to be determined conclusively.

Q46. The questions below consist of a question and three statements numbered I, II, and III. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not. Twelve persons sit in two parallel rows such that six persons sit in each row. In row 1, O, K, L, M, N, and Q sit and face south, while in row 2, A, B, C, D, E, and F sit and face north, but not necessarily in the same order. The persons in row 1 face the persons in row 2 and vice versa. Which person faces Q? I. One person sits between D and the person who faces K. Two persons sit between N and L. One person sits between B and A. F sits to the left of E. M neither faces E nor sits to the left of O. II. N neither faces D nor sits adjacent to the person who faces D. More than two persons sit to the right of F. K and B do not sit at the end. O does not sit adjacent to N and L. III. L and K do not sit adjacent to each other. B neither faces N nor sits adjacent to the person who faces N. More than one person sits to the right of D, who does not sit adjacent to E. E and F do not sit at the end.

1. If data in statement I alone is sufficient
2. If data in statement II alone is sufficient
3. If data either in statement I alone or in statement III alone is sufficient
4. If data in all statements i.e., I, II and III even together is not sufficient
5. If data in all statements i.e., I, II and III together is sufficient

Answer: If data in all statements i.e., I, II and III together is sufficient

Each statement provides only partial positional constraints about the two rows. When combined, the conditions become sufficient to determine the complete seating arrangement and identify who faces Q. Therefore, all three statements together are sufficient.

Q47. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA

1. OLPA
2. KLMA
3. LLMA
4. KLLA

Answer: KLLA

Each position in the four-letter groups changes in a fixed pattern. The first letters go E, G, I, K, M and the third letters go F, H, J, L, N, so the missing term must start with K and have L as the third letter. The middle and last letters also continue the same arrangement, giving KLLA.

Q48. CMM, EOO, GQQ, _____, KUU

1. GRR
2. GSS
3. ISS
4. ITT

Answer: ISS

The first letters form C, E, G, I, K, increasing by 2 each time. The repeated pair also advances by 2 letters: MM, OO, QQ, SS, UU. Therefore the missing term is ISS.

Q49. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

1. parsley
2. basil
3. dill
4. mayonnaise

Answer: mayonnaise

Parsley, basil, and dill are herbs. Mayonnaise is a condiment made from ingredients like oil and egg, so it does not belong with the others.

Q50. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

1. inch
2. ounce
3. centimeter
4. yard

Answer: ounce

Inch, centimeter, and yard are units of length. Ounce is a unit of weight or mass, so it does not belong with the others.